1. In which of the following States was the Panchayati Raj first introduced?
Correct : A. Rajasthan
2. Balwant Rai Mehta Committee suggested that the structure of Panchayati Raj should consist of: [CDS 1992]
Correct : A. the village, the block and the district levels
3. Mandal Panchayats were recommended by:
Correct : C. Ashok Mehta Committee
4. The Panchayati Raj System was adopted to: [I. Tax 1991]
Correct : B. decentralise the power of democracy
5. Panchayati Raj was started in the country in:
Correct : C. 1952
6. Who is to conduct the elections to the Panchayats and Municipalities?
Correct : C. State Election Commission
7. A Municipal Corporation is set up in a city with a population of not less than:
Correct : C. 10 lakh
8. Which of the following States has no Panchayati Raj Institution at all ?
Correct : D. Nagaland
9. Who is the executive head of a Municipal Corporation?
Correct : B. Secretary
10. Which of the following is not true about the Village Panchayats ?
Correct : C. For election to the Village Panchayat, a candidate need not be a resident of the same village but his name should be. In the voter's list
11. The Gram Panchayats are elected by Gram Sabhas consisting of:
Correct : A. every citizen living in a village
12. Special representation in Panchayati Raj Institutions is given to: [IFS 1990]
Correct : D. All of the above
13. Gram Sabha consists of:
Correct : B. All the voters of the Village Panchayat
14. The local self-governing institution for a town with a population of twelve thousand and above is known as :
Correct : C. Municipal Committee
15. A person to be qualified for standing in a panchayat election must have attained the age
of:
Correct : A. 21 years
16. The elections to Panchayats are to be held:
Correct : B. every five years
17. Father of local self-government in India is :
Correct : C. Lord Ripon
18. Which of the following is not a source of revenue to the Village Panchayats ? [RRB
1991]
Correct : A. Property-Tax
19. The function of the Panchayat Samiti is to: [RRB 1991]
Correct : B. implement community development project schemes
20. Which of the following is a source of income of the Gram Panchayats ?
Correct : D. Levy Duties
21. Which of the following is not true regarding a Gram Panchayat ?
Correct : A. It is constituted in every village with a population over 500
22. Every Village Panchayat is headed by a Sarpancha who is elected by:
Correct : C. members of Village Panchayat from among themselves
23. Mayor of a Municipal Corporation holds the office for a period of:
Correct : A. 1 year
24. Which of the following functions are obligatory in all municipalities? 1. Registration of births and deaths. 2. Supply of potable water. 3. Planting and maintenance of road side trees. 4. Provision of transport facilities within the municipality.
Correct : D. I, II, III and IV
25. It is obligatory for all States to have:
Correct : C. some States are exempted from establishing three-tier system
26. What is the intermediate tier of the Panchayati Raj System called? [NDA 2005]
Correct : C. Panchayat Samiti
27. Where was the first Municipal Corporation in India set up ? [CDS 2005]
Correct : B. Kolkata
28. Which of the following is not a recommendation of the Ashok Mehta Committee on Panchayati Raj? [CDS 2009]
Correct : B. Creation of a three-tier system
29. Which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India makes a specific mention of Village Panchayats ?[NDA 2008]
Correct : C. Article 40
30. Which one of the following Amendments of the Constitution of India deals with the
issue of strengthening of the Panchayati Raj? [NDA 2008]
Correct : C. 73rd
31. The tenure of every Panchayat shall be for five years from the date of [CDS 2011]
Correct : A. its first meeting
32. Which is not the concern of the local government? [SSC Grad 2011]
Correct : D. Public Utility Services
33. The Constitution (Seventy-Third Amendment) Act, 1992, which aims at promoting the
Panchayati Raj Institutions in the country, provides for which of the following? 1. Constitution of District Planning Committees. 2. State Election Commissions to conduct all panchayat elections. 3. Establishment of State Finance Commissions. Select the correct answer using the codes given below: [CSAT 2011]
Correct : C. 2 and 3 only
34. The Mayor to the Municipal Corporation is elected by:
Correct : B. the elected representatives together with Elder-men who are elected by these representatives
35. The levying of which one of the following taxes is outside the jurisdiction of Municipal
Corporation?
Correct : B. Income Tax
36. Who among the following is not a member of the Panchayat Samiti ?
Correct : D. All of the above
37. Which of the following is incorrect in respect of Local Government in India? [IAS 1995]
Correct : A. According to the Indian Constitution local government is not an independent tier in the federal system
38. The tenure of Gram Panchayat and Nagarpalika shall be for:
Correct : C. five years, unless dissolved earlier
39. The Panchayats are authorised:
Correct : D. to levy, collect and appropriate such taxes, duties tolls and fees as they are authorised by the Governments
40. The three-tier system of Panchayats :
Correct : C. need not be strictly followed in States with population below 20 lakh
41. The electorate for a Panchayat is :
Correct : D. the Gram Sabha
42. Which of the following are a source of income to the urban local bodies? 1. Octroi duty on goods brought into and taken out of the city. 2. Taxes on vehicles. 3. Income from water and electricity supply. 4. Financial grants from the State Governments.
Correct : D. I, II, III and IV
43. Which of the following provisions of the Constitution can be amended only if (a) they are passed by a majority of total - membership of each House of Parliament and not less than two-thirds of the members present and voting in each House of Parliament, and (b) are ratified by the legislatures of one-half of the States? [IAS 1995] 1. Method of election of President. 2. Provisions regarding the High Court. 3. Abolition of Legislative Council in any State. 4. Qualifications for Indian citizenship 5. Representation of States in Parliament.
Correct : C. I, II and V
44. Which of the following Amendments would need State ratification? 1. Provisions affecting President's election. 2. Provisions affecting the Union Judiciary. 3. Amendment procedure. 4. Reservation of seats for SC/ST in Parliament.
Correct : D. I, II, III and IV
45. Regarding Constitutional Amendments 1. the Provision of joint sitting is not available. 2. they become operative from the date both Houses have passed the Bills. 3. the President's assent to a Constitutional Amendment is obligatory. 4. Parliament may amend any part of the Constitution according to the procedure laid down in Article 368.
Correct : C. I, III and IV
46. The Constitution of India does not mention the post of:
Correct : B. the Deputy Prime Minister
47. Which Amendment of the Constitution gave priority to Directive Principles over Fundamental Rights?
Correct : C. 42nd Amendment
48. A major portion of the Constitution:
Correct : B. can be amended by two-thirds majority
49. If India decides to have a Presidential form of government, the first and foremost Amendment has to be made affecting the:
Correct : C. Executive-Legislature relationship
50. Which Amendment restored the power of judicial review to the Supreme Court and High Courts after it was curtailed by the 42nd Amendment?
Correct : B. 43rd
51. Which one of the following statements is/are correct? I. The committee on the status of women in India (NSW/) recommended the setting up of a National Commission for Women. II. The first Chairperson of the National Commission for Women was Mrs. Jayanti Patnaik. III. The main task of the Commission is to study and monitor all matters relating to the constitutional and legal safeguards provided for women. Select the correct answer using the code given below [CDS 2009]
Correct : A. I, II and III
52. Which of the following cannot be altered by the Parliament by ordinary legislative procedure ?
Correct : D. Representation of States in the Parliament
53. Which of the following would be construed as a reasonable restriction of the 'right to freedom'? [CDS 2009]
Correct : C. When the Government of Nagaland disallows temporary residents to buy immovable property in Nagaland.
54. Which of the following Constitutional Amendments banned the floor crossing in
Parliament? [UGC 1989]
Correct : C. 52nd
55. The provision of amending the Constitutional Provision is given in :
Correct : C. Part XX Article 368
56. A Constitutional Amendment Bill passed by both Houses of Parliament
Correct : B. does need the assent of the President
57. Who is entitled to initiate a Bill for Constitutional Amendments?
Correct : C. Either House of Parliament
58. Which of the following are correct regarding the Parliament's power of amendment? 1. It can amend the Fundamental Rights. 2. It can amend the basic structure of the Constitution.
Correct : A. Only I
59. Indian Constitution was amended for the first time in :
Correct : B. 1951
60. The Ninth Schedule of the Constitution of India was: [UDC 1993]
Correct : A. added by the first Amendment
61. The Amendment regarding the formation of a new State by separating territory from any other State must be passed by:
Correct : D. both the Houses of Parliament and before that the opinion of that State is to be ascertained by the President
62. Of all the Amendments in the Indian Constitution, the most Comprehensive and Controversial Amendment was:
Correct : A. 42nd
63. By which Amendment, the power to amend the Constitution was specifically conferred
upon the Parliament? [NDA 1992]
Correct : D. 24th
64. How many States are required to ratify certain Amendments to the Constitution?
Correct : A. Not less than half the number
65. Which of these Amendments and their subject matter is/are incorrectly matched? 1. 26th Amendment - Abolition of titles and privileges of former rules of princely states 2. 21st Amendment - Curtailed the right to property 3. 51st Amendment - Curbed political defections 4. 61st Amendment - Reduced voting age.
Correct : D. II and III
66. What was the decision of the Supreme Court in Keshavanand Bharati case?
Correct : C. The power under Article 368 to amend the Constitution cannot be so exercised as to alter the basic structure or the essential features of the Constitution
67. In the Minerva Mills batch of cases the Supreme Court has further reaffirmed its decision in :
Correct : B. Keshavanand Bharati case
68. The decision of the Supreme Court in the Golakh Nath Case was that:
Correct : B. Fundamental Rights could not be amended or abridged
69. Put in chronological order the following Amendments to the Constitution. 1. Addition of Ninth Schedule to the Constitution. 2. Abolition of privy purses and privileges of former princes. 3. Insertion of XI Schedule 4. Removal of Right to Property from Constitutional Rights.
Correct : C. I, II, IV, III
70. Which of the following provisions can be amended by simple majority?
Correct : D. All of the above
71. If the procedure for the election of the President of India is sought to be modified, which of the following conditions are required? 1. An Amendment of the Constitution passed by simple majority in Lok Sabha 2. A referendum 3. An Amendment of the Constitution passed by two-thirds majority in both Houses of Parliament. 4. Ratification of the legislatures of at least half the number of States.
Correct : C. 3 and 4
72. As per the Anti-Defection Law, the final authority to decide on a member's disqualification from the House is :
Correct : C. Speaker of the House
73. When the name of the State is changed or a new State is created, the Constitution of
India is required to be amended by Parliament by a :
Correct : A. simple majority as under Articles 107 and 108
74. An Amendment of the Bill relating to the manner and mode of election of the President:
Correct : D. on approval of the Bill by the cabinet, assent of the President may be dispensed with
75. Which of the following statements regarding 74th Amendment of the Constitution are correct? 1. It provides for the insertion of a new schedule to the Constitution. 2. It restructures the working of the municipalities. 3. It provides for the reservation of seats for women and scheduled castes in the municipalities.
Correct : D. A, B and C
76. The Amendment procedure laid down in Indian Constitution is on the pattern of:
Correct : A. Constitution of Canada
77. National Capital Territory of Delhi has been constituted by:
Correct : B. 69th Amendment
78. A merger will not invite action under the Anti-Defection Act if ____ members of a political party decide to join another political party.
Correct : B. two-thirds
79. Which Amendment provided for an authoritative version of the Constitution in Hindi?
Correct : B. 58th
80. Which of the following is true about C. Rajgopalachari?
Correct : C. He was the first and last Indian Governor General of India after independence
81. What is the document published by the government to apprise the public on any issue? [Central Excise 1990]
Correct : C. White Paper
82. The expression 'Creamy layer' used in the judgement of the Supreme Court relating to the case regarding reservations refers to: [RRB 1994]
Correct : B. those sections of socially and educationally backward classes of the society that are developed
83. Extradiction means:
Correct : C. delivering a foreign national for the trial of offences
84. Civil servants are not permitted to become: [Delhi Police 1994]
Correct : D. Members of Parliament
85. Next to Hindi, language spoken by the largest number of people in the Indian
subcontinent is: [CDS 1993]
Correct : A. Bengali
86. Which of the following statements regarding literacy in India are correct ? 1. A person who can only read but cannot write is not defined literate. 2. Children below 5 years of age are not taken into consideration even if they are able to read and write. 3. For the purpose of census, a person is deemed literate if he or she can read and write with understanding in any of the 22 languages mentioned in the Constitution 4. The fact that a district has attained hundred percent literacy does not mean that the entire population in the district is literate.
Correct : B. II, III and IV
87. Which one of the following is the correct sequence in the descending order of precedence in the warrant of precedence? [IAS 2004]
Correct : B. Judges of the Supreme Court - Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha - Attorney General of India - Members of Parliament
88. The Ashok Mehta Committee laid greater emphasis on; [CDS 2004]
Correct : B. Mandal Panchayat
89. By which Amendment Act of the Constituttion of India were the Directive Principles of the State Policy given precedence over the Fundamental Rights wherever they come into conflict? [CDS 200S]
Correct : B. 42nd
90. Consider the following: 1. Disputes with mobile cellular companies. 2. Motor accident cases, 3. Pension cases. For which of the above are Lok Adalats held? [IAS 2005]
Correct : C. 2 only
91. Under which one of the Ministries of the Government of India does the Food and Nutrition Board work? [IAS 2005]
Correct : A. Ministry of Agriculture
92. The Archaeological Survey of India is an attached office of the Department/Ministry of: [IAS 2004]
Correct : A. Culture
93. In which one of the following Ministries, the census organisation has been functioning on a permanent footing since 1961? [CDS 2009]
Correct : B. Home Affairs
94. Under which one of the following Constitution Amendment Acts, four languages were added to the languages under the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution of India, thereby raising their number to 22 ? [IAS 2008]
Correct : C. Constitution (Ninety-second Amendment) Act
95. Department of Border Management is a Department of which one of the following
Union Ministries? [IAS 2008]
Correct : B. Ministry of Home Affairs
96. For which one of the following reforms was a Commission set up under the Chairmanship of Veerappa Moily by the Government of India? [IAS 2008]
Correct : D. Administrative Reforms
97. Which was the Capital of Andhra State when it was made a separate State in the year 1953? [IAS 2008]
Correct : B. Kurnool
98. Which one of the following Union Ministries is implementing the Biodiesel Mission (as Nodal Ministry)? [IAS 2008]
Correct : D. Ministry of Rural Development
99. Consider the following statements with reference to the linguistic reorganization of States in independent India: 1. The separate State of Andhra for the Telugu people came into existence in 1953. 2. Jawaharlal Nehru was particularly in favour of the movement for linguistic reorganisation of States that came in the wake of the success of the Andhra movement. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? [IAS 2008]
Correct : A. 1 only
100. The Constituent Assembly appointed the Linguistic Provinces Commission in the year 1948 to enquire into the desirability of linguistic provinces. Who among the following was the Head of that Commission? [IAS 2008]