1. Which of the following conditions must be fulfilled before a Bill for altering the area of
the States is introduced in the Parliament? 1. The Bill must be recommended by the President. 2. The President should have referred it to the concerned State Legislature before recommending it. 3. The State Legislature must have given its consent on the Bill.
Correct : A. I and II
2. Which of the following actions are not performed by the President?
Correct : C. Dissolving the Rajya Sabha
3. The total number of members in a Legislative Council should not exceed that of a Legislative Assembly by :
Correct : A. 1/3
4. The Chairman of the Public. Accounts Committee of the Parliament is appointed by:
Correct : D. Speaker of Lok Sabha
5. The quorum for Joint Sitting of the Indian Parliament is [CDS 2009]
Correct : C. One-tenth of the' total number of members of the House
6. Which one of the following is the largest (area wise) Lok Sabha constituency?
[IAS 2008]
Correct : B. Kachchh
7. Which of the following is correct? [IAS 1994]
Correct : C. While a candidate to the Lok Sabha can contest from any State in India, a candidate to the Rajya Sabha should ordinarily be a resident of the State from where he is contesting
8. Which parliamentary committee In India is normally chaired by a prominent member of the Opposition?
Correct : D. Public Accounts Committee
9. Who presides over the Lok Sabha if neither the Speaker nor the Deputy Speaker is available? [Asstt Grade 1992]
Correct : D. The senior most member of the Lok Sabha
10. In the case of a deadlock between the two Houses of the Parliament, the joint sitting is presided over by the: [NDA 1994]
Correct : C. Speaker of Lok Sabha
11. Consider the following statements:
1. A Bill pending in the Legislature of 3 State shall not lapse by reason of the prorogation of the House or Houses thereof.
2. A Bill pending in the Legislative Council of a State which has not been' 'passed by the Legislative Assembly shall not lapse on dissolution of the Assembly. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? [NDA 2008]
Correct : C. Both 1 and 2
12. A Bill for alteration of boundaries of States shall not be introduced in the
Parliament. without the recommendation of: [Central Excise 1993]
Correct : D. President
13. Consider the following statements: 1. The Rajya Sabha alone has the power to declare that it would be in national interest for the Parliament to legislate with respect to a matter in the State List. 2. Resolution approving the Proclamation of Emergency are passed only by the Lok Sabha. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? [IAS 2006]
Correct : A. 1 only
14. Which of the following non-members of Parliament has the right to address it ?
Correct : C. Attorney General of India
15. How many members of the Lok Sabha must support a motion of 'no confidence'
in the government, before it can be admitted by the Speaker?
Correct : D. 50
16. Who among the following decides whether a particular bill is a Money Bill or
not? [Asstt Grade 1994]
Correct : B. Speaker of Lok Sabha
17. Consider the following statements:
1. Salary and allowances of the Speaker for Lok Sabha are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India.
2. In the Warrant' of Precedence, the Speaker of Lok Sabha ranks higher than all the Union Cabinet Ministers other than Prime Minister. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? [NDA 2008]
Correct : C. Both 1 and 2
18. Which of the following are Financial Committees of Parliament in India? [IAS 1992] 1. Public Accounts Committee. 2. Estimates Committee. 3. Committee on Public Undertakings.
Correct : D. I, II and III
19. Consider the following statements:
1. The expenditure to be incurred by the Government and the revenue to be collected by way of taxes must be approved by both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha.
2. The charge of impeachment against the President of India can be brought about by only Lok Sabha and not Rajya Sabha Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? [CDS 2005]
Correct : D. Neither 1 nor 2
20. After a no confidence motion is admitted to the Lok Sabha, who decides a date
for the debate?
Correct : C. Lok Sabha Speaker
21. After the House is dissolved, the Speaker:
Correct : B. remains as Speaker until the first meeting of the House of People after the dissolution
22. 1. No Money Bill can be introduced in the Parliament without the recommendation of the President of India. 2. The Prime Minister appoints Finance Commission for distribution of taxes between the Union and the States. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? [Asstt Comm 2008]
Correct : A. 1 only
23. Consider the following statements :
1. The Chairman of the Committee on Public Accounts is appointed by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha.
2. The Committee on Public Accounts comprises Members of Lok Sabha, Members of Rajya Sabha and a few eminent persons of industry and trade. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? [IAS 2007]
Correct : A. 1 only
24. Consider the following statements on Parliamentary Committees: [CDS 2008]
1. Members of the Rajya Sabha are not associated with the Committees on Public Accounts and Public Undertakings.
2. Members of the Committee on Estimates are drawn from both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct : D. Neither 1 nor 2
25. Which one among the following is a function of the Pro-Tem Speaker of the Lok Sabha? [COS 2011]
Correct : C. Swear in the members of the House and hold the charge till a regular Speaker is elected
26. In which of the Parliamentary Financial Committees is the Rajya Sabha not represented? [SSC (10+2) 2010]
Correct : B. Estimates Committee
27. Which one of the following is responsible for the preparation and presentation
of Union Budget to the Parliament? [IAS 2010]
Correct : B. Department of Economic Affairs
28. With regard to the powers of the Rajya Sabha, which one among the following
statements is not correct? [CDS 2012]
Correct : C. The Rajya Sabha cannot discuss the Annual Financial Statement
29. While a proclamation of Emerqency is in operation, the duration of the Lok Sabha can be extended by not exceeding [Asstt Commdt 2011]
Correct : C. one year at a time
30. With reference to the conduct of government business in the Parliament of India, the term 'closure' refers to [CDS 2011]
Correct : B. a rule of legislative procedure under which further debate on a motion can be halted
31. The Public Accounts Committee submits its report to [BPSC 2011]
Correct : B. the Speaker of the Lok Sabha
32. All revenues received by the Union Government by way of taxes and other receipts for the conduct of Government business are credited to the [CSAT 2011]
Correct : C. Consolidated Fund of India
33. When the annual Union Budget is not passed by the Lok Sabha? [CSAT2011]
Correct : D. the Prime Minister submits. The resignation of Council of Ministers
34. What is the difference between "vote-on-account" and "interim budget"? 1. The provision ofa "vote-on-account" is used by a regular Government, while an "interim budget" is a provision used by a caretaker Government. 2. A "vote-on-account" only deals with the expenditure in Government's budget, while an "interim budget" includes both expenditure and receipts. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? [CSAT 2011]
Correct : B. 2 only
35. Which of the following is correct?
Correct : A. Lok Sabha can be dissolved before 5 years
36. If the Rajya Sabha rejects a Money Bill, then which of the following is correct?
Correct : A. Lok Sabha may or may not accept its recommendation
37. The President nominates 12 members of the Rajya Sabha according to :
Correct : D. their distinction in the field of science, art, literature and social service
38. Under which of the following circumstances an elected member of Parliament
may be disqualified on the ground of defection? [IAS 1992] 1. If he voluntarily gives up his membership of a political party. 2. If he votes or abstains from voting contrary to any direction issued by his political party without prior permission of the political party. 3. If he speaks against the political party. 4. If he joins a political party other than the party on whose ticket he contested and got elected.
Correct : B. I, II and IV
39. The distribution of seats of the Parliament are based on which of the following
census?
Correct : C. 1971
40. Which of the following can be abolished, but not dissolved? [IAS 1991]
Correct : C. State Legislative Council
41. The Rajya Sabha has a life of: [Railways 1991]
Correct : D. Permanency
42. The budget in normal circumstances, is presented to the Parliament on :
Correct : A. The last day of February
43. Which one of the following is the largest Committee of the Parliament? [CDS
2009]
Correct : B. The Estimates Committee
44. Parliament or a State Legislature can declare a seat vacant if a member absents himself without permission from the sessions for: [IAS 1990]
Correct : B. 60 days
45. Which authority recommends the principles governing the grants-in-aid of the revenues of the States out of the Consolidated Fund of India? [Asstt Grade 1994]
Correct : C. Finance Commission
46. Which of the following is true regarding the 'No Confidence Motion' in the
Parliament? 1. There is no mention of it in the Constitution. 2. A period of 6, months must lapse between the introduction of one No Confidence 'Motion and another. 3. At least 100 persons must support such motion before it is introduced in the House. 4. It can be introduced in the Lok Sabha only.
Correct : A. 2 and 4
47. How many times can the President of India return a Non-money Bill, passed by
Parliament?
Correct : B. Once
48. The term of the Lok Sabha:
Correct : D. can be extended by 1year at a time
49. If a person elected to both the Union Parliament and a State Legislature does not vacate his seat in the State Legislature within the stipulated period then:
Correct : B. his seat in the Parliament will become vacant
50. Which of the following is correct?
Correct : C. No court of law can go into the merits of a ruling given by the Speaker
51. The first no confidence motion moved in the Lok Sabha after independence was
in the year :
Correct : C. 1963
52. A team of men selected by the party in opposition to take over the different portfolios in case the party is able to wrest power is known as:
Correct : B. shadow Cabinet
53. Under which of the following conditions security deposits of a candidate contesting for a Lok Sabha seat is returned to him/her? I. The nomination made by the candidate if found to be invalid. II. The candidate has withdrawn his/her nomination even through it is found valid. III. The candidate lost the polls but secured 1/6th of the total number of valid votes polled in that election. Select the correct answer using the code given below [CDS 2009]
Correct : A. I and II
54. Which of the following correctly reflects the position of the Upper House of the
State Legislature as compared to the position of the Upper House of the Parliament?
Correct : B. There is no provision for a joint sitting of the Legislative Assembly and the Legislative Council in the States for resolving deadlocks While there is such a provision in the case of the two House of Parliament
55. A member of Parliament has immunity from arrest, means:
Correct : A. a member of Parliament cannot be arrested and put in prison in, a civil action within a period of 40 days before the commencement of the session and 40 days after the termination of the session
56. Which of the following statements is correct?
Correct : A. No member of Parliament can be proceeded in a court of law for any disclosure he makes in Parliament
57. Which of the following is incorrect?
Correct : C. Newspapers have also the freedom to publish expunged portions of the speech of an MP
58. Which of the following is true regarding the Vice-Chairman of the Rajya Sabha
? [Railway Apprentices 1993]
Correct : A. One has to be a member of the Rajya Sabha for election to die post of the Vice-Chairman
59. Who among the following may belong to the Rajya Sabha but can speak in both
the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha ? [CDS 1993]
Correct : A. Ministers who are members of the Rajya Sabha
60. A Member of Parliament can claim immunity:
Correct : B. from civil cases only
61. Which of the following is incorrect?
Correct : A. Prorogation of the House has the effect of wiping out the pending business
62. State which of the following statements is incorrect :
Correct : D. A Money Bill is one which provides for the imposition of fines or fees
63. Representatives of union Territories in Lok Sabha are chosen by:
Correct : A. direct elections
64. Rajya Sabha has the exclusive authority to :
Correct : C. recommend the creation of new All India Services
65. The maximum strength of the nominated members in both the Houses of
Parliament can be:
Correct : C. 14
66. In India, the system of proportional representation is used for: 1. election to the office of the President. 2. election to the office of Vice-President. 3. election of the members of the Rajya Sabha. 4. by elections
Correct : A. I, II and III
67. Article 75 includes among its provisions:
1. Prime Minister is to be appointed by the President.
2. The Council of Ministers shall be collectively responsible the Lok Sabha.
3. The President may appoint a non-member as Prime Minister who must become a member of Parliament before the expiration of six months.
4. The Ministers shall hold office during the pleasure of the Prime Minister.
Correct : A. 1 and 2
68. Under Article 87 :
1. The President may address either House of Parliament and require the attendance of members for that purpose.
2. The President shall address both Houses of Parliament assembled together at the commencement of the first session after each general election to the Lok Sabha.
3. Provision is to be made by rules regulating the procedure of either House for allotment of time for discussion of the matters referred to in the President's address.
Correct : B. II and III
69. In which areas is concurrent action of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha required? 1. Removal of Comptroller and Auditor-General. 2. Approval of emergency proclamation. 3. No-confidence motion. 4. Constitutional amendment.
Correct : C. I, II and IV
70. Which of the following statements are not true?
1. The Rajya Sabha has no power to reject or amend a Money Bill.
2. The Speaker of Lok Sabha has sole and final power of deciding whether a Bill is a Money Bill.
3. In the creation of All-India Services the Lok Sabha has more powers than the Rajya Sabha.
4. In 1976 the Money Bill was introduced in the Rajya Sabha.
Correct : D. C and D
71. The Parliament legislates on a State subject if: I. the Rajya Sabha passes a resolution by two-thirds majority that to do so is in the national inter II. during times of gency. Ill. when the legislatives of two or more States resolve that it is lawful for Parliament to do so. IV. a treaty or international agreement has to be implemented.
Correct : D. I, II, III and IV
72. What is the correct sequence of the given stages that a Bill passes through before becoming an Act? 1. Getting published in the official gazette. 2. Admitting amendments. 3. Reference to a joint committee. 4. Presidential assent.
Correct : B. I, III, II, IV
73. Parliament is empowered to get all the following removed except:
Correct : C. Chairman of UPSC
74. Who is considered the guardian of the Public Purse?
Correct : B. Comptroller and Auditor General
75. All money received by or on behalf of the Government of India are credited to :
Correct : D. Either (a) or (b)
76. Which of the following is not a function of Parliament in India?
Correct : C. Formulating policy for national development
77. A joint sitting may be called: I. only in case of national emergency. II. to enable a Constitutional Amendment to be passed in a hurry. III. when taxes approved by one House are rejected by the other.
Correct : D. None of these
78. The concept of Public Interest Litigation originated in: [IAS 1997]
Correct : C. the United States
79. Which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. The Supreme Court's decrees and orders are enforceable throughout India. 2. The Supreme Court is not bound by its earlier decisions 3. In its power of judicial review the Supreme Court can declare a law unconstitutional on the basis of the objectives underlying the law. 4. The Constitution excludes no area from judicial review.
Correct : B. I and II
80. The Constitution allows preventive detention but stipulates:
Correct : A. that no one should be detained beyond three months unless an Advisory Board authorises detention beyond that period
81. Who is appointed as an adhoc Judge of the Supreme Court ?
Correct : B. A sitting Judge of a High Court duly qualified for appointment as a Supreme Court Judge
82. Which of the .following amendments curtailed the power of Judicial review of the
Supreme Court and the High Courts?
Correct : C. 42th
83. Under a single, integrated, hierarchial judicial system, the High Courts in the States are directly under the:
Correct : D. Supreme Court
84. If a High Court in India does not give the certificate to a case that it involves a substantial question of law, the Supreme Court:
Correct : C. may hear the case if it is satisfied that the case involves a substantial question of law as to the interpretation of the Constitution
85. Consider the following statements:
1. The mode of removal of a Judge of a High Court in India is same as that of removal of a Judge of the Supreme Court.
2. After retirement from the office, a permanent Judge of a High Court cannot plead or act in any court or before any authority in India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? [IAS 2007]
Correct : A. 1 only
86. Which of the following, regarding the advisory jurisdiction of the Supreme Court are correct ?
1. It is binding on the Supreme Court to give its opinion on any matter referred to it by the President.
2. The full bench of the Supreme Court hears any reference made to it under its power of advisory jurisdiction.
3. The opinion given by the Supreme Court on a reference under advisory jurisdiction is not binding on the government.
4. Not more than one reference at a time can be made to the Supreme Court under its power of advisory jurisdiction. [IAS 1994]
Correct : B. I and III
87. For the enforcement of Fundamental Rights, the Supreme Court may issue a/an:
[Stenographers' Exam 1992]
Correct : D. writ
88. Which of the following writs is issued by the court in case of illegal detention of a
person?
Correct : A. Habeas Corpus
89. Under the writ of 'Mandamus', the Court can:
Correct : D. direct the Government to do or not to do a thing
90. Which of the following writs is a bulwark of personal freedom?
Correct : B. Habeas Corpus
91. Which of the following writs may be issued to enforce a Fundamental Right? [CDS
1993]
Correct : A. Habeas Corpus
92. The appropriate writ issued by the court to quash the appointment of a person to a
public office is that of:
Correct : B. Quo Warranto
93. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?
Correct : D. Writ of Certiorari - available against public servants only
94. The total number of High Courts in India at present is:
Correct : D. 21
95. The age of retirement of the Judges of the High Court is :
Correct : A. 62 years
96. Which is the highest and final judicial tribunal in respect of the Constitution of India ?
[SBI PO 1991]
Correct : C. Supreme Court
97. An appeal shall lie to the Supreme Court from any judgement of a High Court if the High Court :
Correct : D. In all the above cases
98. To ensure impartiality, the retired Chief Justice and other Judges of the Supreme Court
are debarred from practising law:
Correct : B. in any court of India
99. What is meant by 'Court of Record'? [I. Tax 1994]
Correct : A. The court that preserves all its records
100. Besides its permanent seat at Delhi, the Supreme Court can also meet at :
Correct : C. any other place as decided by the Chief Justice of India in consultation with the President