Quiznetik

Indian Polity and Constitution | Set 9

1. Which of the following was adopted from the Maurya dynasty in the emblem of Government of India?

A. Four lions

B. Chariot wheel

C. Horse

D. Words 'Satyameva Jayate’

Correct : A. Four lions

2. The office of Governor General of India was created by: [Asstt Grade 1991]

A. Charter Act, 1813

B. Charter Act, 1833

C. Government of India Act, 1858

D. Government of India Act, 1935

Correct : C. Government of India Act, 1858

3. Who among the following is known as the Father of the Indian Constitution?

A. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar

B. Mahatma Gandhi

C. Jawaharlal Nehru

D. Vallabhbhai PateI

Correct : A. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar

4. When did Mr. Attlee, Prime Minister of England, announce the transfer of power to the Indians?

A. February, 1947

B. August, 1947

C. June, 1948

D. June, 1949

Correct : C. June, 1948

5. Who proposed the Preamble before the Drafting Committee of the Constitution? [UDC 1994]

A. Jawaharlal Nehru

B. B.R. Ambedkar

C. B.N. Rao

D. Mahatma Gandhi

Correct : A. Jawaharlal Nehru

6. Which of the following is correct regarding the Indian Constitution?

A. It is completely based on British Constitution

B. It is made only on the basis of Government of India Act, 1935

C. It is a mixture of several Constitutions

D. It is original

Correct : C. It is a mixture of several Constitutions

7. The amendment procedure laid down in the Constitution of India is on the pattern of?

A. Government of India Act, 1935

B. Government of India Act, 1947

C. Constitution of South Africa

D. Constitution of UK

Correct : C. Constitution of South Africa

8. The first session of the Constituent Assembly was held in :

A. Bombay

B. Calcutta

C. Lahore

D. New Delhi

Correct : D. New Delhi

9. Who among the following was the Chairman of the Union Constitution Committee of the Constituent Assembly? [IAS 2005]

A. B.R. Ambedkar

B. J.B. Kripalani

C. Jawaharlal Nehru

D. Alladi Krishnaswami Ayyar

Correct : C. Jawaharlal Nehru

10. Who among the following was not a member of the Constituent Assembly? [CDS 2009]

A. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel

B. Acharya J.B. Kriplani

C. Lok Nayak Jayprakash Narayan

D. K.M. Munshi

Correct : C. Lok Nayak Jayprakash Narayan

11. Which among the following is/are the feature (s) of a Federal State? [NDA 2008] 1. The powers of the Central and the State (Constituent Unit) Governments are clearly laid down 2. It has an unwritten Constitution. Select the correct answer using the codes given below

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Correct : A. 1 only

12. Who was the first Foreign Minister of free India? [NDA 2008]

A. Jawaharlal Nehru

B. Gulzari Lal Nanda

C. Lal Bahadur Shastri

D. John Mathai

Correct : A. Jawaharlal Nehru

13. Under whom among the following was the first draft of the Constitution of India prepared in October 1947 by the advisory branch of the office of the Constituent Assembly? [IAS 2006]

A. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar

B. Jawaharlal Nehru

C. K.M. Munshi

D. B.N. Rau

Correct : D. B.N. Rau

14. Which one among the following is a fundamental duty of citizens under the Constitution of India? [CDS 2012]

A. To provide friendly cooperation to the people of the neighbouring countries

B. To protect monuments of national importance

C. To defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so

D. To know more and more about the history of India

Correct : C. To defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so

15. The first effort at drafting a Dominion Status Constitution for India was made in response to the [CDS 2011]

A. Minto-Morley Reforms

B. Montague-Chelmsford Reforms

C. Simon Commission

D. First Round Table Conference

Correct : C. Simon Commission

16. The Constitution of India divided the states of India in categories A. B. C. and D in the year 1950. In this context which of the following statements is correct? [CDS 2011]

A. The Chief Commissioner was the executive head of category A states. The Rajpramukh was the executive head of category B states. The Governor was the executive head of categories C and D states.

B. The Pajpramukh was the executive head of category A states. The Chief Commissioner was the executive head of categories Band C states. The Governor was the executive head of the category D states.

C. The Governor was the executive head of category A states. The Rajpramukh was the executive head of category B states. The Chief Commissioner was the executive head of categories C and D states.

D. The Governor was the executive head of category A states. The Chief Commissioner was the executive head of category B states. The Rajpramukh was the executive head of categories C and D states.

Correct : C. The Governor was the executive head of category A states. The Rajpramukh was the executive head of category B states. The Chief Commissioner was the executive head of categories C and D states.

17. The Constitution of India was promulgated on January 26, 1950 because:

A. this day was being celebrated as the Independence Day since 1929

B. it was the wish of the framers of the Constitution

C. the British did not want to leave India earlier than this date

D. it was an auspicious day

Correct : A. this day was being celebrated as the Independence Day since 1929

18. The idea of the Constitution of India was first of all given by :

A. Mahatma Gandhi

B. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar

C. Jawaharlal Nehru

D. M.N. Roy

Correct : D. M.N. Roy

19. The members of the Constituent Assembly were:

A. elected by Provincial Assemblies

B. elected directly by people

C. nominated by the government

D. only representatives of the princely States

Correct : A. elected by Provincial Assemblies

20. Which of the following statements regarding the' Constituent Assembly are true? [IAS 1993] 1. It was not based on Adult Franchise. 2. It resulted from direct elections. 3. It was a multi-party body. 4. It worked through several Committees.

A. 1 and 2

B. 2 and 3

C. 3 and 4

D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Correct : C. 3 and 4

21. Who among the following was not a member of the Constituent Assembly established in July 1946? [UTI 1993]

A. Vallabhbhai Patel

B. Mahatma Gandhi

C. K.M. Munshi

D. J.B. Kripalani

Correct : B. Mahatma Gandhi

22. India became a Sovereign, democratic republic on :

A. Aug 15, 1947

B. Jan 30, 1948

C. Jan 26, 1950

D. Nov 26, 1929

Correct : C. Jan 26, 1950

23. Which one of the following made the Indian Legislature bicameral:

A. Indian Councils Act, 1909

B. Government of India Act, 1919

C. Government of India Act, 1935

D. Indian Independence Act, 1947

Correct : B. Government of India Act, 1919

24. The first attempt at introducing a representative and popular element in administration was made by :

A. Indian Councils Act, 1900

B. Indian Councils Act, 1909

C. Government of India Act, 1935

D. Indian Councils Act, 1919

Correct : B. Indian Councils Act, 1909

25. The Government of India Act, 1935 vested the residuary power in the:

A. British Parliament

B. Federal Legislature

C. State Legislature

D. Governor-General

Correct : D. Governor-General

26. Which of the following was not one of the features of Government of India Act, 1935 ?

A. Provincial autonomy

B. Dyarchy of centre

C. Bicameral Legislature

D. All India federation

Correct : C. Bicameral Legislature

27. Which one of the following aimed at providing a federal structure for India?

A. Indian Council Act, 1909

B. Montague-Chelmsford Reforms Act, 1919

C. Charter Act, 1831

D. Government of India Act, 1935

Correct : D. Government of India Act, 1935

28. What was the main stipulation of Government of India Act, 1935 ?

A. A federation was suggested

B. Unitary form of government was recommended

C. Complete independence guaranteed

D. Dyarchy was made applicable at provincial level

Correct : C. Complete independence guaranteed

29. The Constitution of India borrowed the scheme of Indian Federation from the Constitution of: [IAS 1992]

A. USA

B. Canada

C. Ireland

D. UK

Correct : B. Canada

30. The Indian Constitution closely follows the constitutional system of: [I.Tax1989]

A. USA

B. UK

C. Switzerland

D. Russia

Correct : B. UK

31. Which of the following is a feature common to both the Indian Federation and the American Federation? [IAS 1993]

A. A single citizenship

B. Dual Judiciary

C. Three lists in the Constitution

D. A Federal Supreme Court to interpret the Constitution

Correct : D. A Federal Supreme Court to interpret the Constitution

32. The inspiration of 'Liberty, Equality and Fraternity' was derived from:

A. American revolution

B. French revolution

C. Russian revolution

D. None of the above

Correct : B. French revolution

33. Indian President and Prime Minister are a replica of the heads of the State of which country ?

A. Britain

B. USA

C. Ireland

D. Russia

Correct : A. Britain

34. The President of the Indian Union has the same constitutional authority as the:

A. British Monarch

B. President of USA

C. President of Egypt

D. President of Russia

Correct : A. British Monarch

35. Which of the following describes India as a Secular State?

A. Fundamental Rights

B. Ninth Schedule

C. Directive Principles

D. Preamble to the Constitution

Correct : D. Preamble to the Constitution

36. In a parliamentary form of government, real powers of the State are vested in the: [Railways 1994]

A. Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister

B. President

C. Government

D. Parliament

Correct : A. Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister

37. Which of the following is not a basic feature of the Indian Constitution?

A. Presidential Government

B. Parliamentary Government

C. Federal Government

D. Independence of Judiciary

Correct : A. Presidential Government

38. Which of the following is a feature of the Parliamentary form of government?

A. Executive is responsible to Judiciary

B. Executive is responsible to Legislature

C. Judiciary is responsible to Executive

D. Legislature is responsible to Executive

Correct : B. Executive is responsible to Legislature

39. Which of the following features does the Indian Constitution borrow from the Weimar Constitution of Germany?

A. The idea of a federation with a strong centre

B. The method of presidential elections

C. The Emergency powers

D. Provisions concerning the suspension of fundamental rights during National Emergency

Correct : D. Provisions concerning the suspension of fundamental rights during National Emergency

40. Which of the following features and their source is wrongly matched?

A. Judicial review – British practice

B. Concurrent List – Australian Constitution

C. Directive Principles – Irish Constitution

D. Fundamental Rights – US Constitution

Correct : A. Judicial review – British practice

41. Which Constitution has inspired the Indian concepts of rule of law, parliamentary system and law-making procedure?

A. US Constitution

B. British Constitution

C. Canadian Constitution

D. All of the above

Correct : B. British Constitution

42. The Constitution of India is designed to work as a unitary government:

A. in normal times

B. in times of Emergency

C. when the Parliament so desires

D. at the will of the President

Correct : B. in times of Emergency

43. Which of the following features of the Constitution of India does not resemble the American Constitution?

A. Written Constitution

B. Federal form of government

C. Fundamental Rights

D. Parliamentary form of government

Correct : D. Parliamentary form of government

44. Which of the following emerges clearly from the Preamble? 1. When the Constitution was enacted. 2. The ideals that were to be achieved. 3. The system of government 4. The source of authority

A. II, III and IV

B. I and II

C. I, II and III

D. I, II, III and IV

Correct : D. I, II, III and IV

45. Which one of the following statements regarding the Preamble is correct?

A. It is not enforceable in a court of law

B. the Supreme Court has recently ruled that it is not a part of the Constitution

C. It has been amended twice

D. All the above are correct

Correct : A. It is not enforceable in a court of law

46. The Indian Constitution has borrowed the ideas of Preamble from the:

A. Italian Constitution

B. Canadian Constitution

C. French Constitution

D. Constitution of USA

Correct : D. Constitution of USA

47. Secularism means: [RRB 1994]

A. suppression of all religions

B. freedom of worship to minorities

C. separation of religion from State

D. a system of political and social philosophy that does not favour any particular religious faith

Correct : D. a system of political and social philosophy that does not favour any particular religious faith

48. In a Federal State: [I. Tax 1993]

A. States are more powerful than the Centre

B. Centre is more powerful than States

C. a Presidential form of government functions

D. Constitution effects division of powers between the Centre and States with safeguards against transgression of jurisdiction

Correct : A. States are more powerful than the Centre

49. India opted for a federal form of government because of: [Railways 1994]

A. vast-territory

B. cultural integration

C. linguistic and regional diversity

D. administrative convenience

Correct : C. linguistic and regional diversity

50. The Preamble of the Indian Constitution reads:

A. We, the people of India – adopt, enact and give to India this Constitution'

B. We, the people of Constitutent Assembly –adopt, enact and give to India this Constitution

C. We, the citizens of India – adopt, enact and give to ourselves this Constitution

D. We, the people of India – in our Constituent Assembly – adopt, enact and give to ourselves this Constitution

Correct : D. We, the people of India – in our Constituent Assembly – adopt, enact and give to ourselves this Constitution

51. Which one of the following statements is correct?

A. Preamble of the Constitution is the part of the Constitution and can be amended under Article 368

B. Preamble of the Constitution is not a part of the Constitution and cannot be amended

C. Preamble is the part of the basic structure of the Constitution and can be amended only if no change in the basic structure is made

D. Preamble can be amended by Parliament simply by an objective Resolution

Correct : C. Preamble is the part of the basic structure of the Constitution and can be amended only if no change in the basic structure is made

52. The word 'socialist secular' and 'unity and integrity of the Nation' were added to our Constitution by :

A. 42nd Amendment of the Constitution

B. 44th Amendment of the Constitution

C. 46th Amendment of the Constitution

D. None of the above

Correct : A. 42nd Amendment of the Constitution

53. The Preamble of the Constitution of India envisages that:

A. it shall stand part of the Constitution

B. it could be abrogated or wiped out from the Constitution

C. it does not acknowledge, recognise or proclaim anything about the Constitution

D. it has separate entity in the Constitution

Correct : D. it has separate entity in the Constitution

54. The correct nomenclature of India according to the Preamble is:

A. Sovereign, Secular, Democratic Republic

B. Sovereign, Democratic Republic

C. Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic Republic

D. Sovereign, Secular, Socialist Democracy

Correct : C. Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic Republic

55. India is a democratic republic, because:

A. there is independence of judiciary

B. the Head of the State is elected by the people

C. there is distribution of powers between the Centre and the States

D. there is Parliamentary supremacy

Correct : B. the Head of the State is elected by the people

56. The Preamble of our Constitution:

A. is a part of the Constitution

B. contains the spirit of the Constitution

C. is a limitation upon the granted power

D. None of the above

Correct : B. contains the spirit of the Constitution

57. Which of the following is not a part of the Preamble to the Indian Constitution?

A. Secularism

B. Sociaiism

C. Democratic Republic

D. Federalism

Correct : D. Federalism

58. The source of India's sovereignty lies in the:

A. President

B. Prime Minister

C. People of India

D. Preamble to the Constitution

Correct : D. Preamble to the Constitution

59. Who among the following moved the Objectives Resolution which formed tile basis of the Preamble of the Constitution of India in the Constituent Assembly on Dec 13, 1946? [CDS 2009]

A. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar

B. Dr. Rajendra Prasad

C. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel

D. Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru

Correct : D. Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru

60. The constitution of India is republican because it [CDS 2012]

A. provides for an elected Parliament

B. provides for adult franchise

C. contains a bill of rights

D. has no hereditary elements

Correct : D. has no hereditary elements

61. Which one among the following statements is not correct ? The word 'socialist' in the Preamble of the Constitution of India, read with [CDS 2012]

A. Article 39(d), would enable the Court to uphold the constitutionality of nationalization laws

B. Articles 14, would enable the Court to strike down a statute which failed to achieve the socialist goal to the fullest extent

C. Article 25, would enable the Court to ensure freedom guaranteed under that Article

D. Article 23, would enable the Court to reduce inequality in income and status

Correct : C. Article 25, would enable the Court to ensure freedom guaranteed under that Article

62. In India, the concept of single citizenship is adopted from [SSC Grad 2011]

A. England

B. U.S.A.

C. Canada

D. France

Correct : A. England

63. The Indian Constitution comprises of [BPSC 2011]

A. 395 Articles, 22 Parts and 12 Schedules

B. 371 Articles, 21 Parts and 11 Schedules

C. 372 Articles, 20 Parts and 7 Schedules

D. 381 Articles, 23 Parts and 8 Schedules

Correct : A. 395 Articles, 22 Parts and 12 Schedules

64. From which of the countries, Constitution of India has adopted fundamental duties?

A. USA

B. Canada

C. Erstwhile USSR

D. UK

Correct : C. Erstwhile USSR

65. The word 'Socialist' was added to the Preamble, its main aim is to :

A. eliminate inequality in economic and political status

B. eliminate inequality in political and religious affairs

C. eliminate inequality in income and status and standards of life

D. eliminate class based society

Correct : A. eliminate inequality in economic and political status

66. Which of the pairs is correctly matched?

A. Republic - Head of the State is hereditary Monarch

B. Sovereign - Constitution rests on people's will

C. Democratic - Constitution does not recognise legal supremacy of another country

D. Secular - State is without any religion of its own

Correct : D. Secular - State is without any religion of its own

67. The Preamble enshrines certain ideals that were first spelt out in:

A. the speech by Jawaharlal Nehru on the banks of Ravi when he called for Purna Swaraj

B. the Nehru Report

C. a resolution adopted at Karachi session of the Indian National Congress

D. the Objectives Resolution adopted by the Constituent Assembly

Correct : D. the Objectives Resolution adopted by the Constituent Assembly

68. The part of the Constitution that reflects the mind and ideals of the framers is :

A. directive principles

B. fundamental rights

C. preamble

D. citizenship

Correct : C. preamble

69. Which of the following determines that the Indian Constitution is federal? [IAS 1994]

A. A written and rigid Constitution

B. An independent Judiciary

C. Vesting of residuary powers with the Centre

D. Distribution of powers between the Centre and States

Correct : D. Distribution of powers between the Centre and States

70. The Indian Constitution is regarded as :

A. federal

B. unitary

C. parliamentary

D. federal in form and unitary in spirit

Correct : D. federal in form and unitary in spirit

71. Under which Article of the Constitution are the Cultural and Educational Rights granted? [Railways 1995]

A. Article 29 and 31

B. Article 29 and 32

C. Article 29 and 30

D. Article 30 and 31

Correct : C. Article 29 and 30

72. Which of the following is not specifically mentioned in Article 19 of the Constitution?

A. Freedom of speech and expression

B. Freedom to assemble peacefully without arms

C. Freedom to move freely

D. Freedom of the press

Correct : D. Freedom of the press

73. Right to Constitutional Remedies comes under:

A. Fundamental Rights

B. Legal Rights

C. Constitutional Rights

D. Natural Rights

Correct : A. Fundamental Rights

74. If an Indian citizen is denied a public office because of his religion, which of the following Fundamental Rights is denied to him? [Asstt Grade 1994]

A. Right to Freedom

B. Right to Equality

C. Right to Freedom of Religion

D. Right against Exploitation

Correct : B. Right to Equality

75. Fundamental Freedoms under Article 19 are suspended during emergency caused by:

A. war or external aggression

B. failure of constitutional machinery of a State

C. internal armed rebellion

D. financial crisis

Correct : A. war or external aggression

76. The theory of Fundamental Rights implies: [NDA 1992]

A. sovereignty of the people

B. equality of opportunity for all

C. limited government

D. equality of all before law

Correct : C. limited government

77. Prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion etc. (Article 15 of the Constitution of India) is a Fundamental Right classifiable under: [IAS 1995]

A. the Right to Freedom of Religion

B. the Right against Exploitation

C. the Cultural and Educational Rights

D. the Right to Equality

Correct : D. the Right to Equality

78. Any dispute regarding the violation of Fundamental Rights can be presented :

A. in the Supreme Court only

B. in the High Court only

C. either in the Supreme Court or in the High Court

D. first in the Supreme Court and then in the High Court

Correct : C. either in the Supreme Court or in the High Court

79. Which of the following is/are included in the Directive Principles of State Policy? [IAS 2008] 1. Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour 2. Prohibition of consumption except for medicinal purposes of intoxicating drinks and of other drugs which are injurious to health.

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Correct : B. 2 only

80. Indian Constitution recognises minorities on the basis of:

A. religion

B. caste

C. population

D. colour

Correct : A. religion

81. The Fundamental individual are:

A. limited to the State action only

B. meant to protect persons against the conduct of private persons

C. meant to protect persons against the police action

D. All of the above are correct

Correct : D. All of the above are correct

82. Article 14 guarantees equality before law and equal protection of law to :

A. all persons living within the territory of India

B. all Indian citizens living in India

C. all persons domiciled in India

D. all persons natural as well as artificial

Correct : A. all persons living within the territory of India

83. Which Schedule of the Constitution of India contains special provisions for the administration and control of Scheduled Areas in several States? [IAS 2008]

A. Third

B. Fifth

C. Seventh

D. Ninth

Correct : B. Fifth

84. Untouchability is abolished and its practice is punishable according to :

A. Article 15

B. Article 16

C. Article 17

D. Article 15(4)

Correct : C. Article 17

85. Which one is not correctly matched?

A. Freedom of speech and expression - Include freedom of press

B. Freedom of conscience - Include right to wear and carry kirpans by Sikhs

C. Right to Personal liberty - Include right to carry on any trade or business

D. Right to Equality - Include principles of natural justice

Correct : C. Right to Personal liberty - Include right to carry on any trade or business

86. As far as Armed Forces are concerned, the fundamental rights· granted under Articles 14 and 19 of the Constitution are:

A. not available at all

B. available to armed forces but not to other forces

C. available only at the discretion of the chief of army staff

D. available only according to law made by Parliament

Correct : D. available only according to law made by Parliament

87. Right to education is a fundamental right emanating from right to :

A. freedom of speech and expression under Article 19 (1) (a)

B. culture and education under Articles 29 and 30

C. life and personal liberty under Article 21

D. equality before law and equal protection of law under Article 14

Correct : C. life and personal liberty under Article 21

88. The Constitution names our country as :

A. Bharat

B. India, that is Bharat

C. Hindustan

D. Aryavarta

Correct : B. India, that is Bharat

89. The Constitution provides that Hindi shall be:

A. the national language of India

B. the language of communication between the State Governments

C. the official language of the Union of India

D. the language of communication between the Union Government and the State Governments

Correct : C. the official language of the Union of India

90. What is the minimum permissible age for employment in any factory or mine? [Delhi Police 1994]

A. 12 years

B. 14 years

C. 16 years

D. 18 years

Correct : B. 14 years

91. Which of the following is not a condition for becoming a citizen of India?

A. Birth

B. Acquiring property

C. Descent

D. Naturalisation

Correct : B. Acquiring property

92. Who is competent to prescribe conditions as for acquiring Indian citizenship? [Asstt Grade 1992]

A. Parliament

B. State Legislatures

C. President

D. Attorney General

Correct : A. Parliament

93. Which of the following statements regarding the acquisition of Indian citizenship is correct ?

A. If citizenship is to be acquired by registration, six months residence in India is essential.

B. If citizenship is to be acquired by naturalisation the person concerned must have resided in India for 5 years.

C. If born in India, only that person can acquire citizenship at least one of whose parents is an Indian.

D. Rules regarding the citizenship of India shall not be applicable to Jammu and Kashmir.

Correct : C. If born in India, only that person can acquire citizenship at least one of whose parents is an Indian.

94. According to the Citizenship Act, 1955, Indian citizenship cannot be acquired by:

A. children of the diplomatic personnel or alien enemies born in India on or after 26th January, 1950

B. children born of Indian citizens abroad

C. incorporation of territory not forming part of India at the commencement of the Constitution

D. naturalization

Correct : A. children of the diplomatic personnel or alien enemies born in India on or after 26th January, 1950

95. Citizenship provisions are enshrined in the Constitution in :

A. Part II

B. Part II, Articles 5-11

C. Part II, Articles 5-6

D. Part I, Articles 5-11

Correct : B. Part II, Articles 5-11

96. Which of the following Articles describes about the person voluntarily acquiring citizenship of a foreign state not to be citizens?

A. Article 5

B. Article 7

C. Article 8

D. Article 9

Correct : D. Article 9

97. Article 6 enshrines the provision conferring Rights of citizenship of certain persons who have migrated to India from Pakistan. Which one of the following provisions is incorrect?

A. He or either of his parents or any of his grand-parents was born in India as defined in the Government of India Act, 1935

B. Such person has so migrated before 19 July, 1948

C. Such person has so migrated on or after the 19 July, 1948, he has been registered as a citizen

D. Such person has got married in India

Correct : A. He or either of his parents or any of his grand-parents was born in India as defined in the Government of India Act, 1935

98. Details on how citizenship may be acquired and terminated are enumerated in:

A. Part II of the Constitution

B. the Citizenship Act, 1955

C. Schedule I of the Constitution

D. various enactments by Parliament

Correct : B. the Citizenship Act, 1955

99. Indian citizenship of a person can be terminated if: 1. a person voluntarily acquires the citizenship of some other country. 2. a person who has become a citizen through registration is sentenced to imprisonment for not less than 10 years within five years of his registration. 3. the Government of India is satisfied that citizenship was obtained by fraud. 4. a person who is a citizen by birth indulges in trade with an enemy country during war.

A. I and III

B. I, II and III

C. I, III and IV

D. I, II, III and IV

Correct : C. I, III and IV

100. A person can become a citizen of India even if born outside India if his/her:

A. father is a citizen of India

B. mother is a citizen of India

C. father is a citizen of India at the time of the person's birth

D. father or mother is a citizen of India at the time of the person's birth

Correct : D. father or mother is a citizen of India at the time of the person's birth