Quiznetik

Indian Polity and Constitution (GK) | Set 17

1. Which one of the following is the popularly elected House of the Indian Parliament?

A. Rajya Sabha

B. Lok Sabha

C. Lok Sabha as well as Rajya Sabha

D. None of the above

Correct : B. Lok Sabha

2. State Governor is appointed by -

A. Central Cabinet

B. Chief justice of Supreme Court

C. Speaker of Lok Sabha

D. President of India

Correct : D. President of India

3. The salaries and allowances of the Council of Ministers of the State Government are paid from the :

A. Reserve Bank of India

B. Treasury of the State Government

C. Contingency Fund of the State

D. Consolidated Fund of the State

Correct : D. Consolidated Fund of the State

4. The Governor may recommend the imposition of the President's rule in the state

A. on the recommendation of the State Legislature

B. on the recommendation of the President

C. on the recommendation of the Chief Minister

D. if he is convinced thai the Government of the State cannot be carried on in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution of India

Correct : D. if he is convinced thai the Government of the State cannot be carried on in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution of India

5. Can a person who is not a Member of Parliament be appointed as a minister'?

A. No

B. Yes

C. Yes, provided the Parliament approves of such an appointment.

D. Yes, But he has to become a Member of Parliament within six months of his appointment.

Correct : D. Yes, But he has to become a Member of Parliament within six months of his appointment.

6. Which one of the following is not a Constitutional Body?

A. Election Commission

B. Finance Commission

C. Union Public Service Commission

D. Planning Commission

Correct : D. Planning Commission

7. Which one of the following statements is not correct?

A. Indian Parliament is supreme.

B. The Supreme Court of India has the power of judicial review.

C. There is a division of powers between the Centre and the States.

D. There is a Council of Ministers to aid and advise the President.

Correct : A. Indian Parliament is supreme.

8. The seventy third Amendment Act, 1992 of the Indian Constitution was passed to

A. strengthen Panchayti Raj

B. strengthen rural institutions

C. strengthen urban institution

D. None of the above

Correct : A. strengthen Panchayti Raj

9. Articles 74 and 75 of Indian Constitution deal with matters of –

A. the Council of Ministers

B. the Speaker of Lok Sabha

C. the President of India

D. the Cabinet Ministers

Correct : A. the Council of Ministers

10. The Vice-President of India can be removed by the –

A. President on the advice of Council of Ministers

B. Lok Sabha with the consent of the President

C. Rajya Sabha with the concurrence of Lok Sabha

D. Rajya Sabha with the concurrence of the President

Correct : C. Rajya Sabha with the concurrence of Lok Sabha

11. A mid-term poll is conducted when –

A. the Lok Sabha is dissolved before completion of its term

B. an elected member resigns from his seat

C. there are discrepancies in voting

D. all MP's of a political party resign

Correct : A. the Lok Sabha is dissolved before completion of its term

12. If the Anglo-Indian community does not get adequate representation in the Lok Sabha, two members of the community can be nominated by the –

A. Prime Minister

B. President

C. Speaker

D. President in consult-ation with the Parliament

Correct : B. President

13. Which of the following statements is incorrect about Legislative Council?

A. 1/3rd of its members are elected by local bodies

B. President has the final power to decide about its composition

C. It is not subject to dissolution

D. Minimum strength of Legislative Council cannot be less than 40

Correct : B. President has the final power to decide about its composition

14. The Governor of a State is appointed by

A. the Prime Minister

B. the Chief Justice of India

C. the President

D. the Chief Justice of the High Court

Correct : C. the President

15. Political right does not include which of the following?

A. Right to vote

B. Right to life

C. Right to contest in election

D. Right to lodge complaint with executive bodies of the Government

Correct : B. Right to life

16. The Annual Financial Statement of the Government of India in respect of each financial year shall be presented to the House on such day as the -

A. Speaker may direct

B. President of India may direct

C. Parliament may decide

D. Finance Minister may decide

Correct : B. President of India may direct

17. Notification regarding commencement on cessation of a state of war is the responsibility of -

A. Ministry of Home Affairs

B. Ministry of Defence

C. Ministry of External Affairs

D. None of the above

Correct : C. Ministry of External Affairs

18. The office of the President does not characterize the combination of governmental systems of -

A. Parliamentary and Federal

B. Republican and Parliamentary

C. Presidential and Republican

D. Democratic and Republican

Correct : C. Presidential and Republican

19. Which of the following is a feature to both the Indian Federation and the American Federation?

A. A single citizenship

B. Dual judiciary

C. Three Lists in the Constitution

D. A Federal Supreme Court to interpret the Constitution

Correct : D. A Federal Supreme Court to interpret the Constitution

20. What is the importance of developing Chabahar Port by India?

A. India's trade with African countries will enormously increase.

B. India's relations with oil-producing Arab countries will be strengthened.

C. India will not depend on Pakistan for access to Afghanistan and Central Asia.

D. Pakistan will facilitate and protect the installation of a gas pipeline between Iraq and India.

Correct : C. India will not depend on Pakistan for access to Afghanistan and Central Asia.

21. "Persons may change but rules should not change" is the principle of –

A. Absolute Monarchy

B. Constitutional Government

C. Unwritten Constitution

D. Republic

Correct : B. Constitutional Government

22. Indian Constitution is -

A. Rigid

B. Flexible

C. Neither rigid nor flexible

D. Partly rigid and partly flexible

Correct : C. Neither rigid nor flexible

23. Department of Official Language (Raj Bhasha Vibhag) comes under which one of the following Ministries?

A. Ministry of Culture

B. Ministry of Home Affairs

C. Ministry of Human Resource Development

D. Ministry of Information and Broadcasting

Correct : B. Ministry of Home Affairs

24. The first woman film star nominated to the Rajya Sabha was –

A. Nargis Dutt

B. Shabana Azmi

C. Madhubala

D. Meena Kumari

Correct : A. Nargis Dutt

25. The members of the Panchayat Samiti are -

A. nominated by the Block Development officer

B. nominated by the Zila Panchayat Chairman

C. directly elected by the people

D. indirectly electred by the members of the Village Panchayat

Correct : C. directly elected by the people

26. Who amongst the following had demanded first the dominion status for India?

A. Raj Gopalachari and Sardar Patel

B. Pt. Motilal Nehru and Govind Ballabh pant

C. Sir Tej Bahadur Sapru and Jay Kar

D. Jawaharlal Nehru and Jag Jeevan Ram

Correct : C. Sir Tej Bahadur Sapru and Jay Kar

27. The system of proportional representation as an electoral mechanism ensures–

A. Majority Rule

B. Stability in Government

C. Common Politicai Thinking

D. Representation of Minorities

Correct : A. Majority Rule

28. The Election Commission of India is a :

A. One-member Commission

B. Three-member Commission

C. Five-member Commission

D. Seven-member Commission

Correct : B. Three-member Commission

29. Rajya Sabha has no role in –

A. the election of the Vice-President

B. the election of the Speaker

C. the impeachment of the President

D. removal of the judges of the Supreme Court

Correct : B. the election of the Speaker

30. When the posts of both the President and the Vice President are vacant who among the following officiates as President?

A. The Chief Justice of Supreme Court

B. The Lt. Governor of Delhi

C. The Speaker of Lok Sabha

D. The Prime Minister

Correct : A. The Chief Justice of Supreme Court

31. The mention of the word ‘justice’ in the Preamble to the Constitution of India expresses -

A. social, political and religious justice

B. social, economic and cultural justice

C. social, economic and political justice

D. economic and political justice

Correct : C. social, economic and political justice

32. The Judge of the High Courts in India is administered oath of office by -

A. the Chief Justice of the High Court

B. the Governor of the State

C. the President of India

D. the Chief Justice of India

Correct : B. the Governor of the State

33. The Chief Justice of Uttarakhand who also became the Chief Justice of India —

A. Justice Ashok A. Desai

B. Justice P. C. Verma

C. Justice Barin Ghosh

D. Justice S. H. Kapadia

Correct : D. Justice S. H. Kapadia

34. Which of the following states are the first states in India where Integrated Criminal Justice System (ICJS) will be launched?

A. Punjab and Haryana

B. Telangana and Andhra Pradesh

C. Madhya Pradesh and Chhattisgargh

D. Bihar and Jharkhand

Correct : B. Telangana and Andhra Pradesh

35. Which one of the following is not a feature of the Indian Constitution?

A. Federal Government

B. Independence of Judiciary

C. Parliamentary Government

D. Dual Citizenship

Correct : D. Dual Citizenship

36. Which among the following Writs comes into the category of public litigation petition before High Court or Supreme Court?

A. a challenge to elections of the office-bearers of a political party

B. against political interference

C. against the decision of Lower Court

D. against a general topic

Correct : D. against a general topic

37. India is considered as a `Republic' mainly because :

A. the head of the State is elected.

B. it gained independence on 15th August 1947

C. it has its own written constitution

D. it is having a Parlia-mentaiy form of Government.

Correct : A. the head of the State is elected.

38. What was the duration in the making Constitution?

A. 1 Year 10 Months and 12 Days

B. 2 Years 10 Months and 5 Days

C. 2 Years 11 Months and 18 Days

D. 3 Years 6 Months and 7 Days

Correct : C. 2 Years 11 Months and 18 Days

39. What was the basis for constituting the Constituent Assembly of India?

A. The Resolution of the Indian National Congress

B. The Cabinet Mission Plan, 1946

C. The Indian Independence Act, 1947

D. The resolutions of the Provincial/State Legislatures of the Dominion of India

Correct : B. The Cabinet Mission Plan, 1946

40. The Parliament in India is composed of-

A. Lok Sabha & Rajya Sabha

B. Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha & Vice President

C. Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha & President

D. Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha with their Secretariats

Correct : C. Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha & President

41. Which one of the following is not a part of the 'basic structure' of the Indian Constitution?

A. Rule of law

B. Secularism

C. Republican form of government

D. Parliamentary form of government

Correct : C. Republican form of government

42. What is the basis of classification of governments as unitary and federal?

A. Relationship between legislature and executive

B. Relationship between executive and judiciary

C. Relationship between the Centre and States

D. Relationship between the legislature, executive and judicial wings of government

Correct : C. Relationship between the Centre and States

43. Right to the enjoyment of pollution free water as interpreted by the Supreme Court in Subhas Kumar Vs. State of Bihar (1991) falls under -

A. Right to Equality

B. Right to Liberty

C. Right against Exploitation

D. Right to Life and Personal liberty

Correct : D. Right to Life and Personal liberty

44. Economic presence of the government in social realm is found under -

A. Fundamental Rights

B. Fundamental Duties

C. Directive Principles of State Policy

D. Policy for determining citizenship

Correct : C. Directive Principles of State Policy

45. Which of the following is not a feature of Indian federalism?

A. The Constitution creates a strong Centre.

B. The Constitution provides for a single judiciary.

C. The Constitution provides for a common All India Services.

D. The Constitution provides equal representation to the States in the Upper House of the Parliament.

Correct : D. The Constitution provides equal representation to the States in the Upper House of the Parliament.

46. The Indian Constitution recognises minorities on the basis of –

A. Religion

B. Caste

C. Percentage of the population of the Group to the total population

D. Colour

Correct : C. Percentage of the population of the Group to the total population

47. A writ of Mandamus can be issued by the Supreme Court to –

A. an official to perform public duty

B. the Prime Minister to dissolve the Cabinet

C. the company to raise wages

D. the Government to pay the salaries to employees

Correct : A. an official to perform public duty

48. The President of India takes oath -

A. to uphold the sovereignty and integrity of India.

B. to bear true faith and allegiance to the Constitution of India.

C. to uphold the Constitution and Laws of the country.

D. to preserve, protect and defend the Constitution and the law of the country

Correct : D. to preserve, protect and defend the Constitution and the law of the country

49. The President of India is -

A. the Head of State

B. the Head of Government

C. both Head of the State and the Head of the Government

D. None of the above

Correct : C. both Head of the State and the Head of the Government

50. Who among the following holds office during the pleasure of the President of India?

A. Chief Election Commissioner

B. Comptroller and Auditor General of India

C. Chairman of the Union Public Service Commission

D. Governor of a State

Correct : B. Comptroller and Auditor General of India

51. If the posts of the President and Vice- president fall vacant, who will act as the President of India?

A. Speaker of Lok Sabha

B. Prime Minister of India

C. Chief Justice of India

D. Union Council of Ministers

Correct : C. Chief Justice of India

52. Reasonable restrictions under Article 19(2) can be imposed on the ground of

A. Defection

B. Contempt of court

C. Death of the PM

D. Signing of a trade treaty with a country

Correct : B. Contempt of court

53. In Indian Constitution the power to issue a writ of 'Habeas corpus' is vested only in-

A. The Supreme Court

B. The High Court

C. The Supreme Court and the High Court

D. Lower Courts

Correct : C. The Supreme Court and the High Court

54. Judicial Review signifies that the Supreme Court –

A. has final authority in overall cases

B. can declare a state law as unconstitutional

C. can review cases whose decisions have been given by High Court

D. None of the above

Correct : C. can review cases whose decisions have been given by High Court

55. The power of the Supreme Court of India to decide disputes between the Centre and the States falls under its -

A. Advisory Jurisdiction

B. Appellate Jurisdiction

C. constitutional Jurisdiction

D. Original Jurisdiction

Correct : D. Original Jurisdiction

56. Which one of the following is correct about the Supreme Court regarding its judgement?

A. It cannot change the judgement

B. Only the Chief Justice of India can change the judgement

C. It can change the judgement

D. Only the Ministry of Law can change the judgement.

Correct : C. It can change the judgement

57. Which one of the following subjects comes under the common jurisdiction of the Supreme Court and the High Court?

A. Protection of the Fundamental Rights

B. Mutual disputes among the states

C. Disputes between Centre and States

D. Protection from the violation of the Constitution

Correct : A. Protection of the Fundamental Rights

58. The Vice-President of India is also the

A. speaker of Lok Sabha

B. Ex-officio Chairman of Rajya Sabha

C. Head of the State

D. Head of the Government

Correct : B. Ex-officio Chairman of Rajya Sabha

59. The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs has recently raised the emoluments of President, the Vice-President and the Governors. The emolument payable to the President, has been raised to –

A. Rs. 1.00 lakh from Rs. 50,000 per month

B. Rs. 1.50 lakh from Rs. 50,000 per month

C. Rs. 1.75 lakh from Rs. 75,000 per month

D. Rs. 2.00 lakh from Rs. 1.00 lakh per month

Correct : B. Rs. 1.50 lakh from Rs. 50,000 per month

60. What is the tenure of the Prime Minister of India?

A. Conterminous with the tenure of the Lok Sabha

B. Conterminous with the tenure of the President

C. As long as he enjoys the support of a majority in the Lok Sabha

D. Five years

Correct : C. As long as he enjoys the support of a majority in the Lok Sabha

61. Who held the office of the Vice- President of India for two consecutive terms?

A. Dr. S. Radhakrishnan

B. Mr. R. Venkataraman

C. Dr. Shankar Dayal Sharma

D. Mr. V.V. Giri

Correct : A. Dr. S. Radhakrishnan

62. The provisions of reservation for OBC is made in the Constitution under which Articles?

A. Article 13 (ll) and 14

B. Article 14 and 15

C. Article 15 (IV) and 16 (IV)

D. Article 17 and 18

Correct : C. Article 15 (IV) and 16 (IV)

63. Which type of emergency has not been declared so far in India?

A. Internal emergency caused due to internal disturbances

B. External emergency caused due to external threat

C. State emergency, caused due to failure of constitutional machinery in the stales

D. Financial emergency

Correct : D. Financial emergency

64. The Speaker of the lok Sabha enjoys –

A. no right to vote in general circumstances

B. the right to vote only in case of a tie

C. the right to vote like other members of the House

D. the right to vote only once during the term of the House

Correct : B. the right to vote only in case of a tie

65. Which of the following rights was considered the "Heart and Soul" of the Indian Constitution by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar?

A. Freedom of Speech

B. Right to Equality

C. Right to Freedom of Religion

D. Right to Constitutional Remedies

Correct : D. Right to Constitutional Remedies

66. According to Article 120 of the Constitution of India, the business in Parliament shall be transacted in-

A. English only

B. Hindi only

C. English and Hindi both

D. All the languages included in Eighth Schedule of the Constitution

Correct : C. English and Hindi both

67. Pensions of High Court judges are charged on the following -

A. Consolidated fund of India

B. Consolidated fund of State

C. Subject to the decision of Supreme Court

D. None of these

Correct : A. Consolidated fund of India

68. If any question arises as to the age of a judge of a High Court, the question shall be decided by -

A. Chief Justice of India

B. President of India

C. Collegiums of judges headed by the Chief Justice of India

D. Three judges committee constituted by the Vice President of India

Correct : A. Chief Justice of India

69. When the chief justice of a High Court acts in an administrative capacity, he is subject to -

A. The writ jurisdiction of any of the other judges of the High Court.

B. Special control exercised by the chief justice of India.

C. Discretionary power of the Governor of the State

D. Special powers provided to the Chief Minister in this regard

Correct : C. Discretionary power of the Governor of the State

70. Which one among the following statements is not correct? The word 'socialist' in the Preamble of the Constitution of India read with -

A. Article 39 (d), would enable the court to uphold the constitutionality of nationalization laws

B. Article 14, would enable the court to strike down a-statute which failed to achieve the socialist goal to the fullest extent

C. Article 25, would enable the court to ensure freedom guaranteed under that Article

D. Article 23, would enable the court to reduce inequality in income and status

Correct : D. Article 23, would enable the court to reduce inequality in income and status

71. The Preamble is useful in constitutional interpretation because it -

A. uses value loaded words

B. contains the real objective and philosophy of the constitution makers

C. is a source of power and limitation

D. gives and exhaustive list of basic features of the Constitution

Correct : B. contains the real objective and philosophy of the constitution makers

72. The mind of the makers of the Constitution of India is reflected in which of the following?

A. The Preamble

B. The Fundamental Rights

C. The Directive Principles of State Policy

D. The Fundamental Duties

Correct : A. The Preamble

73. The Council of Ministers in a State is collectively responsible to –

A. the Governor

B. the Chief Minister

C. the President of India

D. the Legislative Assembly

Correct : D. the Legislative Assembly

74. One feature is common to the following bodies. Find it out. Supreme Court, Election Commission, UPSC, Office of CAG –

A. They are advisory bodies.

B. They are extra constitutional bodies

C. They are controlled by legislature.

D. They are constitutional bodies.

Correct : D. They are constitutional bodies.

75. Article 19 of the Indian Constitution provides –

A. 6 freedoms

B. 7 freedoms

C. 8 freedoms

D. 9 freedoms

Correct : A. 6 freedoms

76. Of the various grounds below, which is the one criterion on which discriminaion by the State is not prohibited in Article 15 of the Constitution?

A. Place of birth

B. Race

C. Language

D. Caste

Correct : C. Language

77. In the Constitution of India, the Right to Constitutional Remedies' has been provided in Article –

A. 30

B. 31

C. 32

D. 35

Correct : C. 32

78. Article 324-329 of the Indian Constitution deals with which of the following?

A. Tribunals

B. Elections

C. Cast System

D. Panchayti system

Correct : B. Elections

79. By which Amendment were 'Fundamental Duties' added to the Constitution?

A. 42nd

B. 46th

C. 61st

D. 88th

Correct : A. 42nd

80. Right to Privacy comes under –

A. Article 19

B. Article 20

C. Article 21

D. Article 18

Correct : C. Article 21

81. What is the playing time of the full version of the Indian National Anthem? (1)

A. 47 seconds

B. (2) 50 seconds

C. 52 seconds

D. 60 seconds

Correct : C. 52 seconds

82. What is the motto inscribed under our national emblem?

A. Satyam, Shivam

B. Satyam, Sarvatra, Sundaram

C. Satyameva Jayate

D. Jai Hind

Correct : C. Satyameva Jayate

83. How many spokes are there in the Ashoka Chakra depicted on the National Flag of India?

A. 16

B. (2) 20

C. 24

D. 32

Correct : C. 24

84. Which constitutional Amendment deleted the Right to Property from the list of Fundamental Rights?

A. 42nd Amendment

B. 62nd Amendment

C. 44th Amendment

D. 43rd Amendment

Correct : C. 44th Amendment

85. In the Constitution of India, which Article mentions about the establishment of Welfare State in India?

A. 99

B. 39

C. 38

D. 69

Correct : C. 38

86. By which Constitutional Amendment Bill, did the Parliament lower the voting age from 21 to 18 years?

A. 42nd

B. 44th

C. 61st

D. 73rd

Correct : C. 61st

87. Indian Constitution can be amended according to the procedure laid down in the following Article

A. Article 368

B. Article 345

C. Article 351

D. Article 333

Correct : A. Article 368

88. Which of the following Article of Indian Constitution deals with the Right to Equality before Law?

A. Article – 13

B. Article - 14

C. Article – 15

D. Article - 17

Correct : B. Article - 14

89. The Inter-State Council was set up in 1990 on the recommendation of

A. Punchhi Commission

B. Sarkaria Commission

C. Rajamannar Commission

D. Mungerilal Commission

Correct : B. Sarkaria Commission

90. Who was the First Speaker of Independent India's Lok Sabha?

A. Hukam Singh

B. Bali Ram Bhagat

C. Rabi Ray

D. G.V. Mavalankar

Correct : D. G.V. Mavalankar

91. Communism has given importance to –

A. Political equality

B. Economic equality

C. Social equality

D. Natural equality

Correct : B. Economic equality

92. Who was the first woman Ambassador from India?

A. Sarojini Naidu

B. Aruna Asaf Ali

C. Vijaya Lakshmi Pandit

D. C.B. Muthamma

Correct : C. Vijaya Lakshmi Pandit

93. "From each according to his capacity, to each according to his needs" is the principle of –

A. Democracy

B. Fascism

C. Communism

D. Dictatorship

Correct : C. Communism

94. 'Democratic Centralism' is an im- portant feature of a :

A. Communist state

B. Democratic state

C. Totalitarian state

D. Socialist state

Correct : A. Communist state

95. Which Article of the Indian Constitution did Dr. B.R. Ambedkar term as the "Heart and Soul of the Indian Constitution"?

A. Article 14

B. Article 19

C. Article 356

D. Article 32

Correct : D. Article 32

96. The Lok Sabha which was elected in 2004 is –

A. the 12th Lok Sabha

B. the 13th Lok Sabha

C. the 14th Lok Sabha

D. the 11th Lok Sabha

Correct : C. the 14th Lok Sabha

97. Which one of the following Presidents of India served for two terms?

A. S. Radhakrishnan

B. Rajendra Prasad

C. Zakir Hussain

D. V.V. Girl

Correct : B. Rajendra Prasad

98. Popular sovereignty was advocated by–

A. Rousseau

B. John Locke

C. Thomas Hobbes

D. T.H. Green

Correct : C. Thomas Hobbes

99. Who was the President of India during Janata Party regime?

A. Fakhruddin All Ahmed

B. N. Sanjeeva Reddy

C. Giani Tail Singh

D. R. Venkataraman

Correct : B. N. Sanjeeva Reddy

100. Wildlife Protection Act was implemented in India in –

A. 1972

B. 1986

C. 1964

D. 1956

Correct : A. 1972