Quiznetik
Economics (GK) | Set 3
1. Which one of the following is an example of optional money?
A. Currency note
B. Coins
C. Cheque
D. Bond
Correct : C. Cheque
2. 'Money' is an example of -
A. Sunk capital
B. Floating capital
C. Concrete capital
D. Social capital
Correct : B. Floating capital
3. The existence of a Parallel Economy or Black Money -
A. makes the economy more competitive
B. makes the monetary policies less effective
C. ensures a better distribution of income and wealth
D. ensures increasing productive investment
Correct : B. makes the monetary policies less effective
4. An economy is in equilibrium when -
A. planned consumption exceeds planned saving
B. planned consumption exceeds planned investment
C. intended saving equals intended investment
D. intended investment exceeds intended savings
Correct : C. intended saving equals intended investment
5. The 'Canons of Taxation' were propounded by -
A. Edwin Canon
B. Adam Smith
C. J.M. Keynes
D. Dalton
Correct : B. Adam Smith
6. Beyond a certain point deficit financing will certainly lead to -
A. inflation
B. deflation
C. recession
D. economic stagnation
Correct : A. inflation
7. VAT is imposed:
A. Directly on Consumer
B. On first stage of production
C. On final stage of production
D. On all stages between production and sale
Correct : D. On all stages between production and sale
8. The aim of Differentiated Interest Scheme was to provide concessional loans to -
A. weaker section of the society
B. Public Sector Industries
C. Public Limited Companies
D. big exports
Correct : A. weaker section of the society
9. Investment and savings are kept equal through a change in the level of -
A. Consumption
B. Investment
C. Government expenditure
D. Income
Correct : A. Consumption
10. Which of the following is not required while computing Gross National Product (GNP)?
A. Net foreign investment
B. Private investment
C. Per capita income of citizens
D. Purchase of goods by government
Correct : C. Per capita income of citizens
11. In a highly developed country the relative contribution of agriculture to GDP is
A. relatively high
B. relatively low
C. the same as that of other sectors
D. zero
Correct : B. relatively low
12. The demand for money, according to Keynes, is for -
A. speculative motive
B. transaction motive
C. precautionary motive
D. All the above motives
Correct : C. precautionary motive
13. Economic progress of a country is determined by -
A. Increase in per capita income of people of country
B. Increase in the price of produced capital goods during the year
C. Increased numbers of Trade Unions
D. Fall in the general price level of a country
Correct : A. Increase in per capita income of people of country
14. What is "book-building"?
A. Preparing the income and expenditure ledgers of a company (book-keeping)
B. Manipulating the profit and loss statements of a company
C. A process of inviting subscriptions to a public offer of securities, essentially through a tendering process
D. Publishers' activity
Correct : C. A process of inviting subscriptions to a public offer of securities, essentially through a tendering process
15. A hammer in the hands of a house-wife is a good.
A. consumer
B. capital
C. free
D. intermediary
Correct : D. intermediary
16. Surplus budget is recommended during
A. Boom
B. Depression
C. Famines
D. War
Correct : B. Depression
17. Economic profit or normal profit is the same as -
A. optimum profit
B. accounting profile
C. maximum profit
D. net profit
Correct : D. net profit
18. Which of the following is not a feat tare of a capitalist economy?
A. Right to private property
B. Existence of competition
C. Service motive
D. Freedom of choice to consumers
Correct : C. Service motive
19. When the demand for a good increases with an increase in income, such a good is called -
A. Superior good
B. Giffin good
C. Inferior good
D. Normal good
Correct : A. Superior good
20. In equilibrium, a perfectly competitive firm will equate -
A. marginal social cost with marginal social benefit
B. market supply with market demand
C. marginal profit with marginal cost
D. marginal revenue with marginal cost
Correct : D. marginal revenue with marginal cost
21. Equilibrium is a condition that can -
A. never change
B. change only if some outside factor changes
C. change only if some internal factor changes
D. change only if government policies change
Correct : C. change only if some internal factor changes
22. Enterpreneurial ability is a special kind of labour that -
A. is hired out to firms at high wages
B. organizes the process of production
C. produces new capital goods to earn interest
D. manages to avoid losses by continual innovation
Correct : B. organizes the process of production
23. An exceptional demand curve is one that moves -
A. upward to the right
B. downward to the right
C. horizontally
D. vertically
Correct : B. downward to the right
24. Production function explains the relationship between -
A. initial inputs and ultimate output
B. inputs and ultimate consumption
C. output and consumption
D. output and exports
Correct : A. initial inputs and ultimate output
25. The four factors of production are -
A. land, labour, capital, organisation,
B. land, electricity, water, labour
C. labour, capital, land, rainfall,
D. labour, climate, land, tools,
Correct : A. land, labour, capital, organisation,
26. The term utility means -
A. usefulness of a commodity
B. the satisfaction which a commodity yields
C. the service which a commodity is capable of rendering
D. None of these
Correct : B. the satisfaction which a commodity yields
27. The degree of monopoly power is to be measured in terms of the firm's-
A. normal profit
B. supernormal profit
C. both normal and supernormal profit
D. selling price
Correct : B. supernormal profit
28. Who propounded the Innovation theory of profits?
A. J.A. Schumpeter
B. P.A. Samuelson
C. Alfred Marshall
D. David Ricardo.
Correct : A. J.A. Schumpeter
29. The principle of maximum social advantage is the basic principle of -
A. Micro Economics
B. Macro Economics
C. Fiscal Economics
D. Environmental Economics
Correct : C. Fiscal Economics
30. Diamonds are priced higher than water because :
A. they are sold by selected firms with monopolistic powers.
B. their marginal utility to buyers is higher than that of water.
C. their total utility to buyers is higher than that of water.
D. consumers do not buy them at lower prices.
Correct : B. their marginal utility to buyers is higher than that of water.
31. Buyers and Sellers will have perfect knowledge of market conditions under -
A. Duopoly
B. Perfect competition
C. Monopolistic competition
D. Oligopoly
Correct : A. Duopoly
32. In short run, if a competitive firm incurs losses, it will -
A. stop production.
B. continue to produce as long as it can cover its variable costs.
C. raise price of its product.
D. go far advertising campaign.
Correct : A. stop production.
33. If the average revenue is a horizontal straight line, marginal revenue will be -
A. U shaped
B. Kinked
C. Identical with average revenue
D. L shaped
Correct : C. Identical with average revenue
34. The demand of a factor of production is
A. direct
B. derived
C. neutral
D. discretion of the producer
Correct : B. derived
35. Bilateral monopoly refers to the market situation of -
A. two sellers, two buyers
B. one seller and two buyers
C. two sellers and one buyer
D. one seller and one buyer
Correct : D. one seller and one buyer
36. Production function refers to the functional relationship between input and
A. product
B. produce
C. output
D. service
Correct : C. output
37. Under perfect competition, the industry does not have any excess capacity because each firm produces at the minimum point on its -
A. long-run marginal cost curve
B. long-run average cost curve
C. long-run average variable cost curve
D. long-run average revenue curve
Correct : B. long-run average cost curve
38. Exploitation of labour is said to exist when -
A. Wage = Marginal Revenue Product
B. Wage < Marginal Revenue Product
C. Wage > Marginal Revenue Product
D. Marginal Revenue Product =0
Correct : B. Wage < Marginal Revenue Product
39. The size of the market for a product refers to -
A. the number of people in the given area
B. the geographical area served by the proudcers
C. the volume of potential sales of the product
D. the number of potential buyers of the product
Correct : D. the number of potential buyers of the product
40. Economic problem arises mainly due to
A. overpopulation
B. unemployment
C. scarcity of resources
D. lack of industries
Correct : C. scarcity of resources
41. In Economics the 'Utility' and 'Usefulness' have -
A. same meaning
B. different meaning
C. opposite meaning
D. None of the above
Correct : B. different meaning
42. If two commodities are complements, then their crossprice elasticity is-
A. zero
B. positive
C. negative
D. imaginary number
Correct : D. imaginary number
43. Transfer earning or alternative cost is otherwise known as -
A. Variable cost
B. Implicit cost
C. Explicit cost.
D. Opportunity cost
Correct : D. Opportunity cost
44. Economic development depends on :
A. Natural resources
B. Capital formation
C. Size of the market
D. All of the above
Correct : D. All of the above
45. Human Development Index was developed by :
A. Amartya Sen
B. Mahbub-ul-Haq
C. Friedman
D. Montek Singh
Correct : B. Mahbub-ul-Haq
46. While determining income the expenditure on which of the following items is not considered as investment?
A. Construction of factory
B. Computer
C. Increase in the stock of unsold articles
D. Stock and share in joint stock company
Correct : C. Increase in the stock of unsold articles
47. Rate of interest is determined by -
A. The rate of return on the capital invested
B. Central Government
C. Liquidity preference
D. Commercial Banks
Correct : C. Liquidity preference
48. Speculative demand for cash is determined by -
A. The rate of interest
B. the level of income
C. the general price level
D. the market conditions
Correct : A. The rate of interest
49. Gross National Product is the money measure of -
A. all tangible goods produced in a country
B. final goods and services produced in the economy
C. services generated annually in the economy
D. all tangible goods available in the economy
Correct : B. final goods and services produced in the economy
50. The difference between GNP and NNP equals -
A. corporate profits
B. personal taxes
C. transfer payments
D. depreciation
Correct : D. depreciation
51. Investment multiplier shows the effect of investment on -
A. Employment
B. Savings
C. Income
D. Consumption
Correct : C. Income
52. Barter transactions means -
A. Goods are exchanged with gold.
B. Coins are exchanged for goods.
C. Money acts as a medium of exchange.
D. Goods are exchanged with goods.
Correct : D. Goods are exchanged with goods.
53. The supply-side measure to control inflation is -
A. Reducing public expenditure
B. Price control through Public Distribution System
C. Higher taxation to mop up liquidity
D. Credit control
Correct : B. Price control through Public Distribution System
54. HDI is an aggregate measure of progress in which of the three dimensions?
A. Health, Education, Income
B. Food Security, Employment, Income
C. Agriculture, Industry, Services
D. Height, Weight, Colour
Correct : A. Health, Education, Income
55. What is an octroi?
A. Tax
B. Tax collection centre
C. Tax processing centre
D. Tax information centre
Correct : A. Tax
56. Demand of commodity mainly depends upon -
A. Purchasing will
B. Purchasing power
C. Tax policy
D. Advertisement
Correct : B. Purchasing power
57. NIFTY is associated with -
A. Cloth Market Price Index
B. Consumer Price Index
C. BSE Index
D. NSE Index
Correct : D. NSE Index
58. The data collection for national income estimation is conducted in India by—
A. The Finance Ministry of the Government of India
B. The RBI
C. The NSSO (National Sample Survey Organization
D. None of these
Correct : C. The NSSO (National Sample Survey Organization
59. What is AGMARK?
A. It is a marketing seal issued on the graded agricultural commodity
B. It stands for agricultural marketing
C. It represents agricultural management and regulation
D. None of these
Correct : B. It stands for agricultural marketing
60. The Imperial Bank of India, after its nationalization came to be known as :
A. Reserve Bank of India
B. State Bank of India
C. United Bank of India
D. Indian Overseas bank
Correct : B. State Bank of India
61. Floating Exchange Rate is also referred to as -
A. Flexible Exchange Rate
B. Fixed Exchange Rate
C. Real Exchange Rate
D. Controlled Exchange Rate
Correct : A. Flexible Exchange Rate
62. Countries that depend mainly on the export of primary products for their income, are prone to -
A. inflation
B. economic instability
C. increasing unemployment
D. stable economic growth
Correct : C. increasing unemployment
63. Bank deposits that can be withdrawn without notice are called -
A. account payee deposits
B. fixed deposits
C. variable deposits
D. demand deposits
Correct : D. demand deposits
64. What does ECS in banking transactions stand for?
A. Excess Credit Supervisor
B. Extra Cash Status
C. Exchange Clearing Standard
D. Electronic Clearing Service
Correct : D. Electronic Clearing Service
65. Which one is not a function of money?
A. Transfer of value
B. Store of value
C. Price stabilization
D. Value measurement
Correct : C. Price stabilization
66. Inflation is caused by -
A. increase in money supply and decrease in production
B. increase in money supply
C. increase in production
D. decrease in production
Correct : A. increase in money supply and decrease in production
67. State which of the following is correct? The Consumer Price Index reflects -
A. the standard of living
B. the extent of inflation in the prices of consumer goods
C. the increasing per capita income
D. the growth of the economy
Correct : B. the extent of inflation in the prices of consumer goods
68. What are the main components of basic social infrastructure of an economy?
A. Education, Industry and Agriculture
B. Education, Health and Civil amenities
C. Transport, Health and Banks
D. Industry, Trade and Transport
Correct : B. Education, Health and Civil amenities
69. The tax levied on gross sales revenue from business transactions is called -
A. Turnover Tax
B. Sales Tax
C. Capital Gains Tax
D. Corporation Tax
Correct : A. Turnover Tax
70. Ad Valorem tax is levied -
A. according to value added by the Government.
B. according to value addition to a commodity
C. according to value given by producers
D. according to value added by the finance ministry
Correct : C. according to value given by producers
71. Equilibrium price means -
A. Price determined by demand and supply
B. Price determined by Cost and Profit
C. Price determined by Cost of production
D. Price determined to maximize profit
Correct : A. Price determined by demand and supply
72. Opportunity cost of production of a commodity is -
A. the cost that the firm could have Incurred when a different technique was adopted
B. the cost that the firm could have incurred under a different method of production
C. the actual cost incurred
D. the next best alternative output
Correct : D. the next best alternative output
73. Surplus earned by a factor other than land in the short period of referred to as-
A. economic rent
B. net rent
C. quasi-rent
D. super-normal rent
Correct : C. quasi-rent
74. If the change in demand for a commodity is at a faster rate than change in the price of the commodity, the demand is -
A. perfectly inelastic
B. elastic
C. perfectly elastic
D. inelastic
Correct : C. perfectly elastic
75. Which of the following are not fixed costs?
A. Rent on land
B. Municipal taxes
C. Wages paid to workers
D. Insurance charges
Correct : C. Wages paid to workers
76. Cost of production of the producer is given by:
A. sum of wages paid to labourers.
B. sum of wages and interest paid on capital.
C. sum of wages, interest, rent and supernormal profit.
D. sum of wages, interest, rent and normal profit.
Correct : D. sum of wages, interest, rent and normal profit.
77. The market price is related to :
A. very short period
B. short period
C. long period
D. very long period
Correct : A. very short period
78. The demand for necessities is -
A. elastic
B. perfectly inelastic
C. inelastic
D. perfectly elastic
Correct : B. perfectly inelastic
79. If a good has negative income elasticity and positive price elasticity of demand, it is a
A. giffen good
B. normal good
C. superior good
D. an inferior good
Correct : A. giffen good
80. A unit price elastic demand curve will touch -
A. both price and quantity axis
B. neither price axis, nor quantity axis
C. only price axis
D. only quantity axis
Correct : B. neither price axis, nor quantity axis
81. If the supply curve is a straight line passing through the origin, then the price elasticity of supply will be -
A. less than unity
B. infinitely large
C. greater than unity
D. equal to unity
Correct : D. equal to unity
82. According to Modern Theory of Rent, rent accrues to -
A. capital only
B. any factor
C. labour only
D. land only
Correct : B. any factor
83. As the number of investments made by a firm increases, its internal rate of return -
A. declines due to diminishing marginal productivity.
B. declines because the market rate of interest will fall, ceteris paribus.
C. increases to compensate the firm for the current consumption foregone.
D. increases because the level of savings will fall.
Correct : C. increases to compensate the firm for the current consumption foregone.
84. The opportunity cost of a factor of production is -
A. what it is earning in its present use.
B. what it can earn in the long period.
C. what has to be paid to retain it in its present use.
D. what it can earn in some other use.
Correct : D. what it can earn in some other use.
85. The demand for labour is called -
A. Market demand
B. Direct demand
C. Derived demand
D. Factory demand
Correct : C. Derived demand
86. Equilibrium price is the price when :
A. supply is greater than demand
B. supply is less than demand
C. demand is very high
D. supply is equal to demand
Correct : D. supply is equal to demand
87. Elasticity of demand measures the responsiveness of the quantity demanded of a goods to a
A. change in the price of the goods
B. change in the price of substitutes
C. change in the price of the complements
D. change in the price of joint products
Correct : A. change in the price of the goods
88. Product differentiation is the most important feature of -
A. Pure competition
B. monopolistic competition
C. monopoly
D. oligopoly
Correct : B. monopolistic competition
89. Division of labour is the result of -
A. Complicated work
B. excessive pressure
C. excess supply of labour
D. specialization
Correct : D. specialization
90. Which from the following is not true when the interest rate in the economy goes up?
A. Saving increases
B. Lending decreases
C. Cost of production increases
D. Return on capital increases
Correct : D. Return on capital increases
91. Labour Intensive Technique would get chosen in a -
A. Labour Surplus Economy
B. Capital Surplus Economy
C. Developed Economy
D. Developing Economy
Correct : A. Labour Surplus Economy
92. When marginal utility is zero, the total utility is -
A. Minimum
B. Increasing
C. Maximum
D. Decreasing
Correct : C. Maximum
93. Operating Surplus arises in the -
A. Government Sector
B. Production for self consumption
C. Subsistence farming
D. Enterprise Sector
Correct : A. Government Sector
94. The definition of 'small-scale industry' in India is based on -
A. sales by the unit
B. Investment In machines and equipments
C. market coverage
D. export capacity
Correct : B. Investment In machines and equipments
95. What type of products, does CACP recommend minimum support price for?
A. Industrial products
B. Agricultural products
C. Pharmaceutical products
D. None of the above
Correct : B. Agricultural products
96. Special Economic Zone (SEZ) concept was first introduced in -
A. China
B. Japan
C. India
D. Pakistan
Correct : A. China
97. Externality theory is the basic theory of the following branch of Economics:
A. Environomics
B. Fiscal Economics
C. International Economics
D. Macro Economics
Correct : A. Environomics
98. The balance of payments of a country is in equilibrium when the -
A. demand as well as supply of the domestic currency are the highest
B. demand for the domestic currency is equal to its supply
C. demand for the domestic currency is the highest
D. demand for the domestic currency is the lowest
Correct : B. demand for the domestic currency is equal to its supply
99. Cheap money means -
A. Low rates of interest
B. Low level of saving
C. Low level of income
D. Low level of standard of livtrig
Correct : A. Low rates of interest
100. When too much money is chasing too few goods, the situation is -
A. Deflation
B. Inflation
C. Recession
D. Stagflation
Correct : B. Inflation