The Employees’ Provident Funds and Miscellaneous Provisions Act 1952 | Set 1
1. PF act is applicable to an establishment engaged in any industry specified in ……...
Correct : D. Schedule I
2. Minimum ……….. persons must be employed in as establishment for the applicability of the PF act.
Correct : B. 20
3. The term “Appropriate Government” is defined in which section of
the PF Act?
Correct : A. Section 2(a)
4. According to Section 2(a) which is the appropriate Government
for a mine in a given state?
Correct : B. Central Government
5. Section 2(aa) of the PF act defines the term ……………
Correct : B. Authorised Officer
6. Deputy Provident Fund Commissioner is an authorised officer.
Correct : A. True
7. The term “Basic Wages” is defined in which section of the
Provident Fund Act?
Correct : C. Section 2(b)
8. Bonus is part of Basic Wages as defined in the respective section in the PF Act.
Correct : B. False
9. The term contribution is defined in the section ………
Correct : D. Section 2-c
10. Section 2(d) of the Provident Fund Act defines ………
Correct : D. Controlled Industry
11. The term “Employer” is defined in the section ……….. of the PF
Act.
Correct : A. 2(e)
12. Can an agent, of the owner of a factory, be termed as an employer?
Correct : A. Yes
13. The term “Employee” is defined in the section …… of the PF
Act, 1952.
Correct : C. 2(f)
14. A person employed through a contractor will not be considered
as an employee of the establishment.
Correct : B. False
15. A person engaged as an apprentice under the Apprentices Act, 1961 will not be considered as an employee.
Correct : A. True
16. The term “Exempted Employee” is defined under section …….
of the PF Act, 1952
Correct : C. 2(ff)
17. An employee is said to be exempted if the exemption is granted
under section………
Correct : B. 17
18. The term “Exempted Establishment” is defined under which
section of the EPF Act, 1952?
Correct : D. 2(fff)
19. Section 2(g) of the PF Act defines ………………
Correct : C. Factory
20. The term “Fund” is defined under section ………. of the PF Act,
1952
Correct : B. 2(h)
21. Under the PF Act, 1952 “Insurance Fund” means ……………
Correct : B. Deposit Linked Insurance Fund
22. The scheme defined under section 2(i-b) of the PF Act, 1952 is
……………..
Correct : D. Insurance Scheme
23. The section 2(i-a) of PF Act, 1952 defines………..
Correct : C. Insurance Fund
24. The Insurance Scheme is framed under sub-section (1) of the
Section ……… of the PF Act, 1952.
Correct : C. 6-C
25. The term “Member” is defined in the section ………… of the PF
Act, 1952.
Correct : A. 2(j)
26. Section 2(k-A) of the PF Act, 1952 defines …………..
Correct : B. Pension Fund
27. The Employees’ Pension Fund is established under sub-section
(2) of the section ………
Correct : C. 6-A
28. Section 2(kb) of the PF Act, 1952 defines ……….
Correct : C. Recover Officer
29. Section 2(ll) of the PF Act, 1952 defines …………
Correct : A. Superannuation
30. The Employees’ Provident Funds Appellate Tribunal which is
constituted under sec 7-D is defined under which section?
Correct : D. 2(m)
31. Which of the following statements about The Employees’
Provident Funds and (Miscellaneous Provisions) Act are true?
a. The Act is not applicable to cooperative societies employing less than 50 persons working with the aid of power.
b. It makes provision for pension scheme, including family pension.
c. There is no wage limit to be covered under the Act.
d. The Act has a provision relating to Employees’ Deposit-linked Insurance Scheme.
Correct : A. a, b & d
32. What is the present wage limit to be eligible to be covered under the Employees’ Provident Funds and Miscellaneous Provisions Act, 1952?
Correct : B. Rs. 15,000
33. What are the emoluments earned by the employees which are not not come under the definition of 'Basic Wages' in Employees’ Provident Funds and Miscellaneous Provisions Act, 1952
(i) All emoluments which are earned by an employee while on duty or on leave or on holidays with wages in either case in accordance with the terms of the contract of employment and which are paid or payable in cash to him
(ii)The cash value of any food concession.
(iii) Any dearness allowance, house-rent allowance, overtime allowance, bonus, commission or other similar allowance payable to the employee in respect of his employment or of work done in such employment;
(iv) Any presents made by the employer;
Correct : B. ii, iii & iv
34. The Act is applicable to every establishment which is a factory engaged in any industry specified in Schedule I and in which -------- twenty persons are employed
Correct : B. 20 or more
35. The chairman and members of Central Board constituted under Employees Provident Fund are appointed by
Correct : C. Central Government
36. Under this act, how many members are appointed by the Central Government in Central Board representing employees in the establishments to which the Scheme applies
Correct : B. 10
37. The accounts of the Central Board is audited annually by
Correct : C. Comptroller and Auditor-General of India
38. The contribution which shall be paid by the employer to the Fund shall be
Correct : C. 12%
39. An employer who contravenes or makes default in complying with the provisions of section 6 of this act, shall be punishable with imprisonment for a term which may extend to _____ years
Correct : C. 3
40. This Act shall not apply to any establishment registered under the Co-operative Societies Act, 1912 (2 of 1912), employing less than ------- persons and working without the aid of power
Correct : C. 50
41. No court inferior to that of ......................class shall try any offence under this Act
Correct : B. Presidency Magistrate or a Magistrate of the first class
42. Which of the following statements about Central Board are true?
(i) The Central Provident Fund Commissioner is the Ex officio member of the Central Board
(ii) The Central Board shall maintain proper accounts of its income and expenditure in such form and in such manner as the Central Government may, after consultation with the Comptroller and Auditor-General of India, specify in the Scheme
(iii) Central Board shall submit annual report of its work and activities to the Central Government
Correct : D. i, ii & iii
43. Employees’ Provident Funds Appellate Tribunal was constituted
under Section ....... the this act
Correct : D. 7D
44. Under this act, “Insurance Fund” means ……………
Correct : C. Deposit Linked Insurance Scheme
45. The Central Government has amended the ceiling for contributions under the Employees' Provident Fund and Miscellaneous Provisions Act, 1952 (EPF Act) and the Employees' Provident Fund and Miscellaneous Provisions Scheme, 1952 (EPF Scheme) from __________ to __________, with effect from 1 September 2014.
Correct : B. Rs. 6500/- to Rs.15000/-
46. Which of the following labour legislations is implemented only by
the Central Implementation Machinery?
Correct : D. Employees’ State Insurance Act
47. Under Section 2(12) the Act is applicable to non-seasonal factories employing---------- persons
Correct : A. 10 or more
48. Employees’ Deposit Linked Insurance Scheme was introduced in
the year
Correct : A. 1976
49. The Payment of Gratuity Act was introduced in the year
Correct : C. 1972
50. The Maternity Benefit Act was introduced in the year
Correct : A. 1961
51. Which of the following benefits is covered under social security
schemes?
Correct : D. All of the above
52. Making peace with employees by fulfilling all their needs without any resistance is the essence of the
Correct : A. Appeasement theory
53. The age of dependent for obtaining dependent’s benefit under the Employees State Insurance Act has now been enhanced from 18 years to
Correct : D. 25 years
54. Employees who are getting a daily average wages up to ________ are exempted from contributing employees’ share of ESI contribution.
Correct : C. Rs 100
55. The employer’s share of contribution under the ESI Act is
Correct : D. 4.75%
56. As per the latest amendment under the ESI Act, 1948 medical treatment is now available to persons under voluntary retirement scheme also.
Correct : A. True
57. Which of the following legislations in India is governed by a tripartite organisation consisting of representatives of labour, management and Government?
Correct : C. ESI Act
58. What is the wage limit for employees to be covered under the Employee State Insurance Act as per the latest amendment?
Correct : C. Rs. 15,000 per month
59. Employees’ share of contribution under the ESI Act is
Correct : A. 1.75 %
60. Which of the following legislations extends some sort of benefit to retired employees also?
Correct : A. Employees’ State Insurance Act
61. ’Unemployment allowance’ payable is stated in
Correct : C. Employee State Insurance Act, 1948
62. Which of the following legislations was based on the recommendations of the B.P. Adarkar Committee Report?
Correct : A. Employees’ State Insurance Act, 1948
63. Who is an ‘exempted employee’ under the Employee’s state Insurance Act, 1948?
Correct : A. Employee who is not liable under the Act to pay the employee’s contribution
64. The Workmen’s Compensation Act, 1923, the Maternity Benefit Act, 1965 and the Employees State Insurance Act, 1948
Correct : A. If the Workmen’s Compensation Act and the Maternity Benefit Act are applicable, the Employees State Insurance Act is not applicable.
65. What is the content of the Schedule I of the ESI Act, 1948?
Correct : D. None of the above
66. Under ESI Act, 1948 a member of the Corporation, Standing Committee or the Medical Council shall cease to be a member of the body if he fails to attend
Correct : A. Three consecutive meetings
67. Which of the following benefits have not been provided under
the Employee’s State Insurance Act, 1948?
Correct : B. Children’s’ Allowance
68. Which one of the following Labour Legislations provides
comprehensive benefits to industrial workers in India?
Correct : B. Employees’ State Insurance Act
69. An employer is liable to pay his contribution in respect of every employee and deduct employees contribution from wages bill and shall pay these contributions at the specified rates to the Corporation within -----------days of the last day of the Calendar month in which the contributions fall due.
Correct : A. 21
70. Dependants’ Benefit paid at the rate of ----------% of wage in the form of monthly payment to the dependants of a deceased Insured person in cases where death occurs due to employment injury or occupational hazards.
Correct : C. 90%
71. If an Insured Women or an I.P. in respect of his wife confinement occurs at a place where necessary medical facilities under ESI Scheme are not available, how much amount shall be payable per case for two confinements only.
Correct : A. Rs. 5000/-
72. How much amount is payable to the dependents for funeral
expenses?
Correct : B. Rs.10000/-
73. Minimum wage limit for Physically Disabled Persons for availing
ESIC Benefits is
Correct : D. Rs.25000/-
74. Maternity Benefit for confinement/pregnancy is payable for three months, which is extendable by further one month on medical advice at the rate of full wage subject to contribution for -------- days in the preceding year.
Correct : B. 70 days
75. Enhanced Sickness Benefit equal to full wage is payable to insured persons undergoing sterilisation for --------- days for male and ________ female workers respectively.
Correct : A. 7 days and 14 days
76. Extended Sickness Benefit(ESB) is extendable upto two years in the case of 34 malignant and long-term diseases at an enhanced rate of -------- percent of wages.
Correct : D. 80%
77. In order to qualify for sickness benefit, the insured worker is required to contribute for ------- days in a contribution period of 6 months.
Correct : A. 78 days
78. Sickness benefit in the form of cash compensation at the rate of 70 per cent of wages is payable to insured workers during the periods of certified sickness for a maximum of ------ days in a year.
Correct : B. 91 days
79. Medical care is provided to retired and permanently disabled insured persons and their spouses on payment of a token annual premium of ----------
Correct : C. Rs.120/-
80. The State Governments, as per provisions of the Act, contribute 1/8th of the expenditure of medical benefit within a per capita ceiling of --------- per Insured Person per annum.
Correct : D. Rs.1500/-
81. The employee welfare facilities available outside the organisation are called
Correct : A. extra-mural facilities
82. The employee welfare facilities available inside the organization are called
Correct : A. intra-mural facilities
83. Who among the following has the responsibility for employee welfare?
Correct : D. All of the above
84. An inclination to do something good for others can influence the employers to undertake welfare facilities. This is the assumption of the
Correct : A. Benevolence theory
85. In the absence of statutory requirements, the employers may not provide even the basic facilities to the employees. This is the basic assumption of the