Important Questions Repeated in MD Exams | Set 2

1. Which of the following concerning diamorphine elixir for the relief of pain in terminal patients is corrcet?

A. Analgesia is enhanced if cocaine is added

B. Constipation is a characteristic sequel to treatment

C. Dependence occurs rapidly

D. initial sedation typically continues whilst the drug is administered

E. the same amount of pain relief is produced as when the same dose is given via intramuscular injection

Correct : B. Constipation is a characteristic sequel to treatment

2. In a case of Dysgerminoma of ovary tumor markers is likely to be raised.one of the following

A. Serum HCG

B. Serum alphafetoprotein

C. Serum lactate dehydrogenase

D. Serum inhibin

Correct : C. Serum lactate dehydrogenase

3. The most common pure germ cell tumor of the ovary is:

A. Chriocarcinoma

B. Dysgerminoma

C. Embryonoal cell tumor

D. Malignant Teratoma

Correct : B. Dysgerminoma

4. The highest incidence of Gestational Trophoblastic Disease is in:

A. Australia

B. Asia

C. North America

D. Westem Europe

Correct : B. Asia

5. According to the FIGO staging of gestational trophoblastic tumors, a lady with choriocarcinoma having lung metastasis will belong to which stage

A. l

B. ll

C. lll

D. lV

Correct : C. lll

6. A patient with non-metastatic gestational trophoblastic disease can be treated with weekly intramuscular injections of which of the following agents?

7. Five-year survival rates of patients with low-risk, non-metastatic gestational trophoblastic disease approaches?

8. Comparing complete hydatidiform moles gestations, complete hydatidiform mole gestations are more likely than partial moles to demonstrate all of these characteristics except?

A. More likely to require chemotherapy after evacuation for gestational trophablastic disease

B. more likely to present with a uterus large for dates

C. more likely to present with theca lutein cysts

D. more likely to 'have focal rather than diffuse trophoblastic proliferation

E. more likely to have diffuse hydopic swelling of villi

Correct : D. more likely to 'have focal rather than diffuse trophoblastic proliferation

9. A woman experiencing a molar pregnancy has an increased risk of which of the following in subsequent gestations ?

10. The most likely karyotype of patient with a complete mole would be ?

11. The most likely karyotype for patient with a partial mole would be ?

12. A woman with a complete mole is most likely to present with which of the symptoms?

13. A patient with a complete mole is found to have sizeable ovarian cysts that are presumed to be theca lutein cysts. All of the following are true about theca lutein cysts EXCEPT?

A. Such cysts arise more frequently in patients with complete moles

B. Theca lutein cysts are more likely seen in patients with very high hCG levels

C. Cysts are filled with serious or serosanguinous fluid and are usually bilateral

D. Often require active management with surgical intervention

E. Patients with large theca lutein cysts may be at increased risk for postmolar persistence of disease

Correct : D. Often require active management with surgical intervention

14. Regarding gestational trophoblastic disease (GTD),all are true except

A. Incomplete moles are more likely to undergo malignant change than the complete moles

B. GTD is almost always completely curable with preservation of fertility

C. Lymphnode involvement is a rare feature of choriocarcinoma

D. GTD usually shows low resistance blood flow

E. It is rare to have other metastasis in the absence of lung metastasis

Correct : A. Incomplete moles are more likely to undergo malignant change than the complete moles

15. Risk of Malignancy in Adenomatous polyp is related to all except

A. Size

B. Number

C. Histological appearance

D. Dysplasia

Correct : B. Number

16. Polyps are generally managed endoscopically. Which of the following is not an indication for resectional surgery

A. Lymphovascular invasion

B. Poor differentiation

C. Flat or ulcerated lesion

D. Lesion in upper 1/3rd of submucosa

Correct : D. Lesion in upper 1/3rd of submucosa

17. Which of the following is not true for malignancy of Familial Adenomatous Polyposis

A. Adrenals

B. Thyroid

C. Astrocytomas

D. Hepatoblastomas

Correct : C. Astrocytomas

18. What is not true for HNPCC

A. It is the most common hereditary colorectal cancer syndrome in USA

B. It is associated with MMR gene mutation

C. It is associated with APC mutation

D. It is associated with carcinoma colon and extraintestinal cancers

E. Answer C and D are correct

Correct : C. It is associated with APC mutation

19. True about Ulcerative Colitis with malignancy

A. It has a better prognosis

B. Is related to disease activity

C. Is related to duration of ulcerative colitis

D. Malignancy is more in anorectal ulcerative colitis

E. All of above

Correct : C. Is related to duration of ulcerative colitis

20. In ulcerative coilitis with toxic megacolon lowest rate of recurrence is seen in

A. Complete proctocolectomy and Brook's ileostomy

B. Ileo rectal anastomoses

C. kock's pouch

D. none of above

Correct : A. Complete proctocolectomy and Brook's ileostomy

21. All are precancerous for carcinoma colon except

A. Crohn's disease

B. Bile acids

C. Fats

D. Carotene

Correct : D. Carotene

22. Which of these genetic risk factors has the highest association with colon cancers

A. Sporadic

B. Past family history of colo rectal cancer

C. Hereditary Nonpolyposis colon cancer (HNPCC)

D. Familial Adenomatous Polyposis (FAP)

Correct : A. Sporadic

23. After total proctocolectomy with ileal pouch anal anastomoses what is the most common cause of death in patients with Familial Adenomatous Polyposis (FAP)

A. Gastric cancer

B. Periampullary carcinoma

C. Genito urinary cancers

D. Recurrence of colorectal cancer

Correct : B. Periampullary carcinoma

24. Most valuable investigation for preoperative evaluation of extensive corrosive stricture is

A. Endoscopic ultrasound

B. Barium study

C. CT Thorax

D. Pharyngoscopy

Correct : A. Endoscopic ultrasound

25. Not an association between (PSC) Primary sclerosing cholangitis and Ulcerative colitis (UC)

A. Inflammatory Bowel disease (IBD) seen in 70% of patients with PSC

B. Diagnosis of IBD occurs 8-10 years before PSC

C. Colitis is severe in patients with both PSC And UC as compared to UC alone

D. Risk of colon cancer is more when patients have both UC and PSC as compared to UC alone

Correct : C. Colitis is severe in patients with both PSC And UC as compared to UC alone

26. Which is the most accurate method of detecting colon cancer

27. What is the most appropriate treatment for T3 colon cancer

28. Radiotherapy is indicated in

29. Concerning small intestinal fistulae, all the following are true EXCEPT:

A. A fistula may have a high output or a low output depending on its site.

B. High output fistulae occur in the upper small bowel.

C. Low output fistulae occur in the ileum.

D. Isotonic saline should be used to replace intravascular and interstitial volume in high output fistulae

E. The lower the fistula the higher the fluid and nutrient loss.

Correct : E. The lower the fistula the higher the fluid and nutrient loss.

30. Concerning colonic polyps:

A. Polyposis means the presence of hundreds of polyps, usually in the small intestine.

B. Pedunculated polyps are more likely to become malignant than sessile ones.

C. Villous adenomas are associated with hyperkalaemia.

D. Metaplastic polyps commonly become malignant.

E. Most adenocarcinomas arise within pre-existing adenomas.

Correct : E. Most adenocarcinomas arise within pre-existing adenomas.

31. A 45 years old male with bilateral breast cancer with his mother developed breast cancer when aged 34 years and his sister developed ovarian cancer at age 50 years. The most likely genetic mutation for this patient is/are

32. A 45 years old female with right sided breast cancer with no family history suggesting familial cancer. The most likely genetic mutation for this patient is/are

33. Chromosomal 17 has many genes implicated in molecular criteria of breast cancer including these genes EXCEPT:

34. Concerning adenomatous polyps, all the following are true EXCEPT:

A. They may cause anaemia

B. They may cause diarrhea

C. They occur mainly in the ileum

D. They may initiate an intussusception

E. They have a malignant potential

Correct : C. They occur mainly in the ileum

35. Familial polyposis coli

A. is inherited as autosomal recessive

B. is more common in male

C. cancer develops after the age of 50 in untreated patients

D. polyps develop throughout the colon and rectum early in the second decade of life

E. the responsible gene is on the long arm of chromosome 6

Correct : D. polyps develop throughout the colon and rectum early in the second decade of life

36. Gardner's syndrome is associated with all the following EXCEPT:

A. multiple colorectal adenomas

B. sebaceous and dermoid cysts

C. adenomas of the mandible or skull

D. desmoid tumors of the abdominal wall

E. no malignant potential

Correct : E. no malignant potential

37. All the following may predispose to colorectal cancer EXCEPT

A. Familial adenomatous polyposis

B. High fibre, low fat diets

C. Ulcerative colitis

D. Schistosomal colitis

E. Exposure to irradiation

Correct : B. High fibre, low fat diets

38. Genes implicated in the pathogenesis of colorectal cancer include all the following EXCEPT:

39. The carcinoid syndrome is likely to occur with carcinoid tumors:

A. of the appendix

B. localized to the ileum

C. both

D. neither

Correct : D. neither

40. Carcinoid tumors (argentaffinomas) are characterized by all of the following except:

A. many are multiple especially in the ileum

B. can occur in alimentary, biliary and respiratory tracts

C. may produce systemic symptoms when accompanied by liver metastases

D. appendix is the most common site

E. appendiceal types have greatest malignant potential

Correct : E. appendiceal types have greatest malignant potential

41. Primary carcinoma is least common in:

A. esophagus

B. stomach

C. small intestine

D. colon

Correct : C. small intestine

42. Which is most characteristic of carcinoma of the cecum or right colon (in contrast to carcinoma of the rectum)?

A. anemia

B. associated polyposis

C. bowel obstruction

D. diarrhea

Correct : A. anemia

43. In which of the following segments of the gastrointestinal tract is primary carcinoma least common?

44. Bilateral ovarian metastases presenting as tumor masses are most characteristically associated with carcinoma of the:

45. The worst prognosis is associated with carcinoma of the:

A. esophagus

B. stomach

C. small intestine

D. colon

Correct : A. esophagus

46. Diffuse intramural spread with extensive fibroblastic thickening is a morphologic pattern most characteristically associated with carcinoma of the

47. Carcinoid tumors have a varied malignant potential. The most benign are located in the:

A. stomach

B. small intestine

C. rectum

D. appendix

Correct : D. appendix

48. Which of the following characterizes the biologic nature of carcinoid tumors (argentaffinomas)?

A. benign but produce systemic symptoms

B. production of systemic symptoms when they metastasize to the liver

C. especially malignant when primary in the appendix

D. production of jejunal ulceration due to gastrin elaboration

Correct : B. production of systemic symptoms when they metastasize to the liver

49. In the colon, which is benign and has no significant tendency to undergo malignant transformation?

A. familial polyposis

B. juvenile polyp

C. villous adenoma

D. carcinoid tumors

Correct : B. juvenile polyp

50. Carcinoma of the esophagus:

A. produces symptoms early and is more curable than carcinoma of the stomach

B. is difficult to cure because of local spread

C. is characterized by early widespread metastases

D. is usually undifferentiated

Correct : B. is difficult to cure because of local spread

51. Carcinoma of the esophagus has a poor prognosis because:

A. metastases to liver or lung are usually present before the diagnosis is made

B. the lesion is not accessible to surgery

C. local spread usually prevents complete removal

D. the tumor is radioresistant

Correct : C. local spread usually prevents complete removal

52. All of the following correctly describe carcinoma of the esophagus except:

A. male predominance

B. most frequently involves adenocarcinoma

C. patients usually over 50 years of age

D. most frequently of the squamous cell type

E. symptoms may occur late in the disease

Correct : B. most frequently involves adenocarcinoma

53. Which of the following is most characteristic of carcinoma of the esophagus?

A. produces symptoms early and is more curable than cancer of the stomach

B. difficult to cure because of local spread

C. characterized by widespread and early metastases

D. has a good response to chemotherapy and therefore is rarely excised or radiated

Correct : B. difficult to cure because of local spread

54. The most common type of esophageal cancer in the United States is:

A. adenocarcinoma

B. leiomyosarcoma

C. lymphoma

D. squamous cell carcinoma

Correct : D. squamous cell carcinoma

55. What is the significance of intestinal metaplasia in the stomach or colon?

A. It has no significance.

B. It is frequently associated with mildly precancerous inflammatory disease.

C. It is highly precancerous.

D. It is usually associated with heterotopic pancreas.

Correct : B. It is frequently associated with mildly precancerous inflammatory disease.

56. Multiple recurrent ulcers in proximal and distal duodenum for several years are likely to be associated with:

A. heavy aspirin intake

B. islet cell adenoma of pancreas

C. smoking

D. excessive bile secretion

Correct : B. islet cell adenoma of pancreas

57. In a patient with a chronic peptic ulcer of the stomach, the chance that carcinoma will develop in the ulcer is:

A. over 80%

B. about 50%

C. about 30%

D. very small

Correct : D. very small

58. Carcinoma of the stomach usually arises from:

A. smooth muscle cells

B. acid producing cells

C. pepsinogen producing cells

D. mucus producing cells

E. argentaffin cells

Correct : D. mucus producing cells

59. Which presents as a bulky mass lesion often with deep central ulceration?

A. leiomyoma of stomach

B. leiomyosarcoma of stomach

C. both

D. neither

Correct : C. both

60. Lymphoma of the stomach:

A. may be primary or secondary in the stomach

B. has a better prognosis than carcinoma of the stomach

C. both

D. neither

Correct : C. both

61. Which neoplasm is most FREQUENTLY found in the appendix?

62. The most benign examples of carcinoid tumor usually are found in the:

A. colon

B. appendix

C. ileum

D. stomach

Correct : B. appendix

63. Which type of polyp is most LIKELY in a patient presenting with watery mucoid diarrhea?

A. juvenile polyp

B. adenomatous polyp

C. villous adenoma

D. carcinomatous polyp

Correct : C. villous adenoma

64. Familial breast cancer is characterized by

A. Account for about 20% of all breast cancer

B. A BRCA1 mutation is the most common genetic changes.

C. Associated cancers tend to be more aggressive, of a higher grade, and hormone receptor negative.

D. Follow the same rules of screening as non-familial breast cancer.

E. All of above.

Correct : C. Associated cancers tend to be more aggressive, of a higher grade, and hormone receptor negative.

65. A bulky tumor of the rectum exhibits a delicate, velvety, easily bleeding surface. It has no pedicel and its base appears to be as wide as its apex. The process is most probably:

66. Which is characterized by small size?

A. adenomatous polyp

B. hyperplastic polyp

C. villous adenoma

D. juvenile polyp

Correct : B. hyperplastic polyp

67. Which best characterizes Peutz-Jeghers polyps?

A. solitary, hamartomatous, not premalignant

B. multiple, hamartomatous, not premalignant

C. solitary, neoplastic, premalignant

D. multiple, neoplastic, not premalignant

Correct : B. multiple, hamartomatous, not premalignant

68. Which of the following factors is most valuable in predicting the biologic behavior of carcinoma of the colon?

A. age of the patient

B. duration of symptoms

C. region of the colon affected

D. diameter of the cancer

E. lymph node metastasis

Correct : E. lymph node metastasis

69. Which of the following is most strongly predisposing to colon cancer?

A. ulcerative colitis

B. familial polyposis

C. Crohn‟s disease

D. Peutz-Jegher‟s syndrome

Correct : B. familial polyposis

70. Adenocarcinoma of the ascending colon is more likely than adenocarcinoma of the sigmoid colon to:

A. encircle the bowel, causing a stricture or obstruction

B. be bulky

C. both

D. neither

Correct : B. be bulky

71. Persistent elevation of serum carcinoembryonic antigen following surgical resection of a carcinoma of the colon suggests:

72. In contrast to carcinoma of the right colon, carcinoma of the left colon tends to be associated with:

73. Which of the following lesions of the colon has the least tendency to undergo malignant transformation?

A. ulcerative colitis

B. juvenile polyp

C. villous adenoma

D. polyp of Gardner‟s syndrome

Correct : B. juvenile polyp

74. Predisposes to adenocarcinoma:

A. Barrett‟s esophagus

B. achalasia, esophagus

C. both

D. neither

Correct : A. Barrett‟s esophagus

75. Predisposes to squamous cell carcinoma:

A. Barrett‟s esophagus

B. achalasia, esophagus

C. both

D. neither

Correct : B. achalasia, esophagus

76. A 76-year-old male was admitted for symptoms including constipation, change in stool character and weight loss. Colonoscopy revealed multiple polyps in the rectosigmoid area. An adenomatous polyp was removed. Another colonic tumor was seen in the same patient which was flat with irregular “shaggy rug” surface. A biopsy showed frond-like glandular architecture. Atypical epithelial cells in clusters were seen beneath the muscularis mucosae. The most likely diagnosis is:

A. adenomatous polyp

B. villous adenoma with atypism

C. focus of adenocarcinoma arising in villous adenoma

D. colitis cystica profunda

E. NONE of above

Correct : C. focus of adenocarcinoma arising in villous adenoma

77. An elderly male had rectal bleeding. A flat velvety mass was observed in the cecum. The provisional diagnosis was villous adenoma. A partial colectomy was performed. Invasion through the muscularis mucosae, but not into the muscularis propria, was observed on paraffin sections. Therefore, the final diagnosis was:

78. A male heavy smoker develops increasing difficulty in swallowing gradually over six months. Constriction of the mid-esophagus is seen on x-ray of barium swallow. The most likely diagnosis is:

79. Which of the following chemotherapy drug is likely to be toxic to gonads?

80. High dose chemotherapy given prior to stem cell transplant may be associated with gonadal failure. Risk is least with the use of

A. Busulfan + cyclophosphamide

B. Cyclophosphamide + TBI

C. Ifosfamide +carboplatin+ Etoposide

D. Fludarabine + ATG

Correct : D. Fludarabine + ATG

81. Incidence of Gallbladder cancer is highest in

A. Chile

B. India

C. United Kingdom

D. South Africa

Correct : A. Chile

82. Which of the following is least to occur as Gallbladder primary?

A. Adenocarcinoma

B. Squamous cell carcinoma

C. Lymphoma

D. Carcinoid tumor

Correct : C. Lymphoma

83. Which of the following is less likely to be associated with Gallbladder cancer?

A. Obesity

B. Use of tobacco and alcohol

C. Aflatoxins

D. Past history of enteric fever

Correct : C. Aflatoxins

84. On immunohistochemistry, classical Hodgkin‟s lymphoma Reed sternberg cells are likely to be

A. CD15(-), CD 30(+),CD45(-)

B. CD15(+), CD 30(+),CD45(+)

C. CD15(+), CD 30(+),CD45(-)

D. CD15(-), CD 30(+),CD45(+)

Correct : C. CD15(+), CD 30(+),CD45(-)

85. Most common site of metastasis in breast cancer is

A. lung

B. liver

C. bone

D. brain

Correct : C. bone

86. Which one of the following cancers is usually associated with a moderate to high uptake of 18F-fluorodeoxyglucose (18 FFDG)?

A. Bladder

B. Colorectal

C. Thyroid

D. Testicular

Correct : B. Colorectal

87. Which one of the following is an accurate definition of the sensitivity of a screening test?

A. The percentage of screening tests that is positive

B. The percentage of screening tests that is negative among patients who remain unaffected by the condition of interest after screening

C. The percentage of screening tests that is positive among patients who remain unaffected by the condition of interest after screening

D. The probability of a diagnosis of the condition of interest after a positive screening test

Correct : C. The percentage of screening tests that is positive among patients who remain unaffected by the condition of interest after screening

88. Epstein-Barr virus-associated Hodgkin‟s lymphoma is …

A. common in the elderly

B. common in young children

C. more common in industrialized countries

D. more common in females

Correct : B. common in young children

89. Treatment of early stage favorable Hodgkin‟s lymphoma …

A. necessarily includes radiotherapy

B. requires 6 to 8 cycles of multiagent chemotherapy

C. with 4 cycles of chemotherapy and low dose involved-filed radiotherapy is the standard of care

D. With complete response to 2 chemotherapy cycles further treatment is not needed.

Correct : C. with 4 cycles of chemotherapy and low dose involved-filed radiotherapy is the standard of care

90. Regarding G-CSF - the best description of its mechanism of action and role in chemotherapy is

A. reduced PMN nadir when used as prophylaxis

B. reduced duration of neutropenia when used as prophylaxis

C. not useful unless already neutropenic

D. reduce thrombocytopenia severity

E. potentiates effects of chemotherapy

Correct : A. reduced PMN nadir when used as prophylaxis

91. A 44-year-old woman presented with post-coital bleeding. Investigation revealed a 2-cm grade 1, stage IB1 squamous cell carcinoma of the cervix. There was no evidence of lymphovascular space invasion. She had completed her family.What is the most appropriate treatment?

92. Mutations in which gene are least likely to be associated with breast cancer if inherited in the germ-line?

93. The least likely to be associated with bowel cancer is

94. 14 year old girl with Hodgkin's disease is treated with radiotherapy (mantle field). Which is the most likely secondary carcinoma that could develop

95. Young male with germ cell cancer. He is on bleomycin. etoposide and cisplatinum. What side effect would make you stop the treatment?

A. Peripheral neuropathy

B. neutropenic septicaemia

C. interstitial lung disease

D. high tone hearing loss

Correct : B. neutropenic septicaemia

96. Most likely route of ovarian cancer spread:

97. Man with medullary carcinoma of thyroid, worried about his son. What do you do?

A. yearly calcitonin

B. look for ret oncogene in the cancer

C. look for ret oncogene in blood

D. pentagastrin stimulation test

E. reassure

Correct : C. look for ret oncogene in blood

99. An older woman with breast cancer with bony metastases who was on aminoglutamethonine. Picture of rash which covered right breast and covered left breast a little, small nodules, some dead skin and a few scaly bits. Most likely cause of rash?

100. Male with bone pain from metastatic prostate cancer will be started on LHRH antagonist. He refuses orchidectomy. His illness will show:

A. immediate improvement

B. initially worse than improvement

C. immediate improvement then decline

D. slow improvement

E. no change

Correct : B. initially worse than improvement

Quiznetik

Important Questions Repeated in MD Exams | Set 2

1. Which of the following concerning diamorphine elixir for the relief of pain in terminal patients is corrcet?

2. In a case of Dysgerminoma of ovary tumor markers is likely to be raised.one of the following

3. The most common pure germ cell tumor of the ovary is:

4. The highest incidence of Gestational Trophoblastic Disease is in:

5. According to the FIGO staging of gestational trophoblastic tumors, a lady with choriocarcinoma having lung metastasis will belong to which stage

6. A patient with non-metastatic gestational trophoblastic disease can be treated with weekly intramuscular injections of which of the following agents?

7. Five-year survival rates of patients with low-risk, non-metastatic gestational trophoblastic disease approaches?

8. Comparing complete hydatidiform moles gestations, complete hydatidiform mole gestations are more likely than partial moles to demonstrate all of these characteristics except?

9. A woman experiencing a molar pregnancy has an increased risk of which of the following in subsequent gestations ?

10. The most likely karyotype of patient with a complete mole would be ?

11. The most likely karyotype for patient with a partial mole would be ?

12. A woman with a complete mole is most likely to present with which of the symptoms?

13. A patient with a complete mole is found to have sizeable ovarian cysts that are presumed to be theca lutein cysts. All of the following are true about theca lutein cysts EXCEPT?

14. Regarding gestational trophoblastic disease (GTD),all are true except

15. Risk of Malignancy in Adenomatous polyp is related to all except

16. Polyps are generally managed endoscopically. Which of the following is not an indication for resectional surgery

17. Which of the following is not true for malignancy of Familial Adenomatous Polyposis

18. What is not true for HNPCC

19. True about Ulcerative Colitis with malignancy

20. In ulcerative coilitis with toxic megacolon lowest rate of recurrence is seen in

21. All are precancerous for carcinoma colon except

22. Which of these genetic risk factors has the highest association with colon cancers

23. After total proctocolectomy with ileal pouch anal anastomoses what is the most common cause of death in patients with Familial Adenomatous Polyposis (FAP)

24. Most valuable investigation for preoperative evaluation of extensive corrosive stricture is

25. Not an association between (PSC) Primary sclerosing cholangitis and Ulcerative colitis (UC)

26. Which is the most accurate method of detecting colon cancer

27. What is the most appropriate treatment for T3 colon cancer

28. Radiotherapy is indicated in

29. Concerning small intestinal fistulae, all the following are true EXCEPT:

30. Concerning colonic polyps:

31. A 45 years old male with bilateral breast cancer with his mother developed breast cancer when aged 34 years and his sister developed ovarian cancer at age 50 years. The most likely genetic mutation for this patient is/are

32. A 45 years old female with right sided breast cancer with no family history suggesting familial cancer. The most likely genetic mutation for this patient is/are

33. Chromosomal 17 has many genes implicated in molecular criteria of breast cancer including these genes EXCEPT:

34. Concerning adenomatous polyps, all the following are true EXCEPT:

35. Familial polyposis coli

36. Gardner's syndrome is associated with all the following EXCEPT:

37. All the following may predispose to colorectal cancer EXCEPT

38. Genes implicated in the pathogenesis of colorectal cancer include all the following EXCEPT:

39. The carcinoid syndrome is likely to occur with carcinoid tumors:

40. Carcinoid tumors (argentaffinomas) are characterized by all of the following except:

41. Primary carcinoma is least common in:

42. Which is most characteristic of carcinoma of the cecum or right colon (in contrast to carcinoma of the rectum)?

43. In which of the following segments of the gastrointestinal tract is primary carcinoma least common?

44. Bilateral ovarian metastases presenting as tumor masses are most characteristically associated with carcinoma of the:

45. The worst prognosis is associated with carcinoma of the:

46. Diffuse intramural spread with extensive fibroblastic thickening is a morphologic pattern most characteristically associated with carcinoma of the

47. Carcinoid tumors have a varied malignant potential. The most benign are located in the:

48. Which of the following characterizes the biologic nature of carcinoid tumors (argentaffinomas)?

49. In the colon, which is benign and has no significant tendency to undergo malignant transformation?

50. Carcinoma of the esophagus:

51. Carcinoma of the esophagus has a poor prognosis because:

52. All of the following correctly describe carcinoma of the esophagus except:

53. Which of the following is most characteristic of carcinoma of the esophagus?

54. The most common type of esophageal cancer in the United States is:

55. What is the significance of intestinal metaplasia in the stomach or colon?

56. Multiple recurrent ulcers in proximal and distal duodenum for several years are likely to be associated with:

57. In a patient with a chronic peptic ulcer of the stomach, the chance that carcinoma will develop in the ulcer is:

58. Carcinoma of the stomach usually arises from:

59. Which presents as a bulky mass lesion often with deep central ulceration?

60. Lymphoma of the stomach:

61. Which neoplasm is most FREQUENTLY found in the appendix?

62. The most benign examples of carcinoid tumor usually are found in the:

63. Which type of polyp is most LIKELY in a patient presenting with watery mucoid diarrhea?

64. Familial breast cancer is characterized by

65. A bulky tumor of the rectum exhibits a delicate, velvety, easily bleeding surface. It has no pedicel and its base appears to be as wide as its apex. The process is most probably:

66. Which is characterized by small size?

67. Which best characterizes Peutz-Jeghers polyps?

68. Which of the following factors is most valuable in predicting the biologic behavior of carcinoma of the colon?

69. Which of the following is most strongly predisposing to colon cancer?

70. Adenocarcinoma of the ascending colon is more likely than adenocarcinoma of the sigmoid colon to:

71. Persistent elevation of serum carcinoembryonic antigen following surgical resection of a carcinoma of the colon suggests:

72. In contrast to carcinoma of the right colon, carcinoma of the left colon tends to be associated with:

73. Which of the following lesions of the colon has the least tendency to undergo malignant transformation?

74. Predisposes to adenocarcinoma:

75. Predisposes to squamous cell carcinoma:

78. A male heavy smoker develops increasing difficulty in swallowing gradually over six months. Constriction of the mid-esophagus is seen on x-ray of barium swallow. The most likely diagnosis is:

79. Which of the following chemotherapy drug is likely to be toxic to gonads?

80. High dose chemotherapy given prior to stem cell transplant may be associated with gonadal failure. Risk is least with the use of