Quiznetik

Engineering Chemistry | Set 4

1. Auto-ignition temperature is

Correct : B. that at which it catches fire without external aid

2. Ignition lag is

Correct : A. the time taken by fuel after injection to reach upto auto-ignition temperature

3. Ignition quality of diesel fuel oil is expressed by an index called

Correct : B. cetane number

4. In presence of which gas is the fuel burnt to generate energy in the form of heat?

Correct : A. oxygen

5. Which are the main constituents of fuel from given options?

Correct : C. carbon and hydrogen

6. Which fuel is used widely in steam power plants?

Correct : C. coal

7. What is the phenomenon of the formation of coal called?

Correct : A. metamorphism

8. On what basis is the coal classified?

Correct : D. physical and chemical composition

9. What is the use of electrostatic precipitations in steam power plant?

Correct : D. to remove fly ash

10. Why is ‘make-up water’ added to drum continuously?

Correct : D. to compensate for water loss trough blow down

11. What causes failure of boiler tube?

Correct : D. hardness of water

12. Which of the following is the correct condition for the efficient combustion of coal?

Correct : B. intimate mixing of air with the combustible matter

13. Which of the following furnace is best suitable for the efficient combustion of coal?

Correct : D. boiler furnace

14. Which of the following is calculated by flue gas analysis?

Correct : A. amount of air used in combustion

15. What happens when carbon monoxide is obtained in flue gas analysis?

Correct : C. combustion is incomplete

16. What happens when too much excess air is supplied to the furnace in the process of combustion of coal?

Correct : C. there is loss in heat in the furnace

17. If both CO and O2, both are indicated in the appreciable amount in the flue gas analysis, which type of combustion is seen?

Correct : B. irregular and non-uniform combustion

18. Short orsat apparatus gives more precise results than long orsat in the analysis of flue gas.

Correct : B. false

19. At what temperature does the CO is converted to CO2 in orsat apparatus for analysis of flue gas?

Correct : A. 280-295 0c

20. Which of the following apparatus cannot be used for flue gas analysis?

Correct : C. able’s apparatus

21. In which of the following process are Neutrons emitted?

Correct : B. nuclear fission

22. Heavy nuclei must be such that they can be fissioned by neutrons of an energy such substance are called?

Correct : C. fission species

23. What happens when a neutron is absorbed by a nucleus of an atom of U235?

Correct : C. u236 isotope is formed

24. Who invented nuclear fission?

Correct : C. otto hahn

25. Atoms of different chemical elements that have the same number of nucleons are called as?

Correct : A. isobars

26. Most of the energy released in fission process is in process of

Correct : A. kinetic energy

27. Combining of two light nuclei of low mass to produce a heavy nucleus is called

Correct : A. nuclear fusion

28. What type of Reaction takes place in sun?

Correct : A. nuclear fusion

29. How many number of nuclei of hydrogen fuse in a series of reaction involving other particles that continually appear and disappear?

Correct : D. 4

30. Why is it necessary to accelerate positively charged nuclei to high kinetic energies to cause fusion?

Correct : A. to overcome electrical repulsive forces

31. Fusion reactions are called

Correct : A. thermonuclear

32. Which of the following element is readily available in the ordinary water?

Correct : C. deuterium

33. How is tritium made from sea water?

Correct : A. by bombarding lithium

34. The atomic weight and atomic number of an element are A and Z respectively. What is the number of neutrons in the atom of that

Correct : C. 3

35. moderator is used in a fast breeder reactor.

Correct : C. no

36. Nuclides having the same atomic number are termed as?

Correct : D. isomers

37. Main source of                      is monazite sand.

Correct : D. thorium

38. Emission of β-particles during radioactive decay of a substance is from

Correct : A. nucleus

39. A fertile material is the one, that can be

Correct : A. converted into fissile material on absorption of neutron

40. The half-life period of a radioactive element depends on its

Correct : D. none of the mentioned

41. Which is radioactive in nature?

Correct : C. tritium

42. Which is the most commonly used nuclear fuel in boiling water reactor?

Correct : A. enriched uranium

43. Fuel for a nuclear reactor (thermal) is

Correct : A. uranium

44. The first underground nuclear test was conducted by India at

Correct : A. pokhran

45. The best capable alternative source which can meet the future energy demand is

Correct : B. nuclear power plant

46. How much coal is required to generate energy equivalent to the energy generated by 1 kg of uranium?

Correct : D. 3000 tonnes of high grade coal

47. Nuclear fuel in reactor lasts for

Correct : D. more than 5 years

48. Cost of nuclear fuel in nuclear power plant economics is considered as

Correct : C. capital cost

49. Which of the following are not taken as operation and maintenance cost in economics of nuclear power plant?

Correct : A. taxes and insurance

50. What is the overall efficiency of nuclear power plant?

Correct : C. 30 to 40 %

51. The land area required for installation of nuclear power plant is

Correct : C. equel to thermal power plant

52. All of the nuclear fuel reserve will be ended in about 400 years.

Correct : B. false

53. With respect to the load centre which location is suitable for stablishment of nuclear power plant?

Correct : B. near load centre but at reasonable distance

54. Operating cost of nuclear power plant is less than thermal power plant.

Correct : A. true

55. PWR stands for

Correct : C. pressurized water reactor

56. What does the top of the pressurizer in pressurized water reactor consists of at primary system pressure?

Correct : A. steam

57. Select the incorrect statement which supports PWR.

Correct : C. uses natural fuel

58. Select the incorrect statement about PWR.

Correct : B. corrosion is less in pwr

59. LWR stands for

Correct : D. light water reactor

60. How many types of Boiling water reactor cycles are there?

Correct : B. 3

61. Which country invented CANDU heavy water reactor?

Correct : A. canada

62. In which of the Following reactor is heavy hydrogen isotope H-2 is used as moderator?

Correct : C. candu reactor

63. CANDU stands for

Correct : B. canadian natural deuterium uranium

64. Which reactor consists of both fertile and fissile material?

Correct : A. fast breeder reactor

65. What is acronym of LMFBR?

Correct : B. liquid metal fast breeder reactor

66. GCFBR stands for

Correct : B. gas cooled fast breeder reactor

67. Using Helium gas in GCFBR has many advantages.

Correct : A. true

68. Which reactor uses orthometaerhenyl and paratherphenyl as coolant and moderator?

Correct : C. organic substance cooled reactor

69. Nuclear plant is located near the area where cooling water is available.

Correct : A. true

70. Which of the following may be used to measure the rate of nuclear disintegration?

Correct : A. geiger-muller counter

71. The second underground nuclear test was conducted by India at

Correct : A. pokhran

72. Which of the following may not need a moderator?

Correct : B. fast breeder reactor

73. The mass number of an element is not changed, when it emits                       radiations.

Correct : D. β & γ

74. Which of the following is not a naturally occurring nuclear fuel?

Correct : C. plutonium-239

75. Which is the most commonly used molten metal for cooling of nuclear reactors?

Correct : C. sodium

76. One amu is equivalent to?

Correct : A. 931 mev

77. Fast breeder reactors do not

Correct : C. use th-232 as fissile fuel

78. A boiling water reactor is the one, in which the

Correct : D. coolant water is allowed to boil in the core of the reactor

79. Commercial power generation from fusion reactor is not yet possible, because

Correct : C. it is difficult to control fusion reaction

80. Thermal shield is used in high powered nuclear reactors to

Correct : B. protect the walls of the reactor from radiation damage

81. Which of the following energy has the greatest potential among all the sources of renewable energy?

Correct : A. solar energy

82. What is the rate of solar energy reaching the earth surface?

Correct : A. 1016w

83. What is total amount of solar energy received by earth and atmosphere?

Correct : A. 3.8 x 1024 j/year

84. Which is most common source of energy from which electricity is produced?

Correct : C. coal

85. In what form is solar energy is radiated from the sun?

Correct : C. electromagnetic waves

86. What does MHD stands for in the energy field?

Correct : A. magneto hydro dynamic

87. Solar radiation which reaches the surface without scattering or absorbed is called

Correct : A. beam radiation

88. The scattered solar radiation is called

Correct : C. diffuse radiation

89. Solar radiation received at any point of earth is called

Correct : A. insolation

90. Insolation is less

Correct : A. when the sun is low

91. HHW stands for

Correct : B. high level waste

92. What is unit of nuclear radiation?

Correct : B. roentgen

93. Which type of fuel is removed from the reactor core after reaching end of core life service?

Correct : B. spent fuel

94. A solar cell is a

Correct : D. p-n junction

95. Which of the following materials cannot be used as solar cells materials?

Correct : D. pbs

96. What is the difference between Photodiode and Solar cell?

Correct : B. no external bias in solar cell

97. During the collection of e-h pairs, holes are collected by

Correct : B. back contact

98. What is the point where the graph touches the X-axis Indicate?

Correct : C. open circuit voltage

99. The I-V characteristics of a solar cell are drawn in the fourth quadrant.

Correct : A. true

100. What should be the band gap of the semiconductors to be used as solar cell materials?

Correct : C. 1.5 ev