Quiznetik

Engineering Chemistry | Set 2

1. Which of the following is not a characteristic of a catalyst?

Correct : A. it participates in the reaction

2. Which of the following will decrease the rate of reaction?

Correct : A. catalytic poison

3. Which of the following is a catalytic poison?

Correct : C. aluminium oxide

4. Which of the following is used as a catalytic promoter?

Correct : B. nitrate

5. Where is the intermediate theory used?

Correct : A. heterogeneous components

6. Lambda PL promoter is used in which vectors?

Correct : B. expression vectors

7. The promoter can be controlled by a repressor which is temperature sensitive.

Correct : A. true

8. The              operon encodes proteins involved in arabinose metabolism.

Correct : C. arabad

9. tac promoter is an example of which type of promoter?

Correct : A. hybrid promoter

10. The tac promoter is made by            region of trp promoter and            region of the lacUV5 promoter.

Correct : B. 35, 10

11. The tac promoter includes the lac operator and is regulated by a repressor.

Correct : A. true

12. Expression of T7 promoter- lac operator hybrid requires

Correct : C. both t7 rna polymerase and inducer such as iptg

13. When lacUV5 control system is used, addition of IPTG                the expression of

Correct : A. activates, t7 rna polymerase

14. A                     is a biocatalyst that increases the rate of the reaction without being changed.

Correct : C. enzyme

15. Enzyme increases the rate of reaction by lowering the activation energy.

Correct : A. true

16. What is the nature of an enzyme?

Correct : D. protein

17. What is an apoenzyme?

Correct : A. it is a protein portion of an enzyme

18. Name the coenzyme of riboflavin (B2)?

Correct : B. fad and fmn

19. Which of this vitamin is associated with the coenzyme Biocytin?

Correct : C. biotin

20. Name the enzyme secreted by pancreas?

Correct : C. trypsin

21. Name the enzyme which catalyzes the oxidation-reduction reaction?

Correct : D. oxidoreductase

22. What is the function of phosphorylase?

Correct : A. transfer inorganic phosphate

23. Mark the CORRECT function of enzyme, Peptidase?

Correct : B. cleave amino bonds

24. Which of the following reaction is catalyzed by Lyase?

Correct : A. breaking of bonds

25. Which of the following is true about Michaelis-Menten kinetics?

Correct : B. it describes single substrate enzymes

26. When the velocity of enzyme activity is plotted against substrate concentration, which of the following is obtained?

Correct : A. hyperbolic curve

27. Which of the following is an example for irreversible inhibitor?

Correct : D. dipf

28. Where does inhibitor binds on enzyme in mixed inhibition?

Correct : B. allosteric site

29. The catalytic efficiency of two distinct enzymes can be compared based on which of the following factor?

Correct : A. km

30. What is the general mechanism of an enzyme?

Correct : A. it acts by reducing the activation energy

31. What kind of steel requires definite amounts of other alloying elements?

Correct : B. alloying steel

32. Which of these is not a function of alloy steels?

Correct : C. reduces cost

33. 1 ALLOYS: INTRODUCTION- DEFINITION- PROPERTIES OF ALLOYS- SIGNIFICANCE OF ALLOYING, FUNCTIONS AND EFFECT OF ALLOYING ELEMENTS

Correct : A. low alloy steels

34. What does AISI steel stand for?

Correct : C. american iron and steel institute

35. Which of these is not an application of HSLA steels?

Correct : D. leaf and coil springs

36. Steels containing more than 5% of one or more alloying elements are known as

Correct : B. high alloy steels

37. Which of the following groups of alloying elements stabilize austenite?

Correct : A. ni, mn, cu, and co

38. Which family of steels are referred to as chromoly?

Correct : B. 41xx

39. What is the common name of COR-TEN steel?

Correct : A. weathering steel

40. Alloy steels containing 0.05% to 0.15% of alloying elements are called

Correct : D. microalloyed steel

41. Which is the primary element used for making stainless steel alloy?

Correct : A. chromium

42. Addition of                gives stainless steels an austenitic structure.

Correct : C. nickel

43. Stainless steels with little carbon and no nickel are called

Correct : A. ferritic stainless steel

44. Stainless steels with high strength, but low corrosion resistance are known as

Correct : C. martensitic stainless steel

45. Which of the following is not a type of oil- hardening steel?

Correct : D. o9

46. Mushet steel belongs to which group of tool steels?

Correct : B. air-hardening steels

47. What property does the AISI-SAE tool steel grade ‘L’ possess?

Correct : D. special purpose

48. The low-carbon, high-alloyed steels which possess high strength and toughness are known as

Correct : C. maraging steels

49. What do TRIP steels stand for?

Correct : B. transformation induced plasticity

50. What is the maximum allowable temperature at which High-Speed Steels retain good cutting ability?

Correct : D. 540oc

51. Ultra high-speed steels are made of which of the following elements?

Correct : C. vanadium and cobalt

52. What is the microstructure of Hadfield’s steel?

Correct : A. austenite

53. Which of the following is the hardest constituent of steel?

Correct : D. martensite

54. Iron possesses BCC crystal structure up to (in degree centigrade)?

Correct : B. 768

55. Iron possesses BCC crystal structure above (in degree centigrade)?

Correct : D. 1410

56. Which of the following form of iron is magnetic in nature?

Correct : A. α

57. For steel, which one of the following properties can be enhanced upon annealing?

Correct : C. ductility

58. In Annealing, cooling is done in which of the following medium?

Correct : D. furnace

59. In normalizing, cooling is done in which of the following medium?

Correct : A. air

60. Mild steel can be converted into high carbons steel by which of the following heat treatment process?

Correct : C. case hardening

61. Upon annealing, eutectoid steel converts to which of the following?

Correct : A. perlite

62. What is Gibbs phase rule for metallurgical system?

Correct : B. f = c + 1 – p

63. In a single – component condensed system, if degree of freedom is zero, maximum number of phases that can co – exist

Correct : A. 2

64. What is degree of freedom when two phases co – exist?

Correct : D. 1

65. What is degree of freedom when three phases co – exist?

Correct : C. 0

66. When α, L and β phase fields touch the isotherm line what are the respective phase compositions?

Correct : A. 8.0 wt%, 71.9 wt%, 91.2 wt% of ag

67. For binary alloy consisting of three phases of non – equilibrium one, What will be the temperature of these phases?

Correct : C. same

68. What does Gibb’s phase rule state?

Correct : D. p+f=c+2

69. What is the point at which all the three phases of a system exist?

Correct : A. triple point

70. Liquid phase exists for all compositions above                    region.

Correct : C. isometric region

71. Select the wrong statements from the following statements with respect to a phase diagram.

Correct : D. gives information on relative concentration

72. Select a non-homogeneous system from the following.

Correct : D. saturated solution of nacl

73. Select the odd statement with respect to a phase reaction.

Correct : A. saturated solution

74. Which of the following is the formula for condense phase rule?

Correct : B. f=c-p+1

75. Under what condition, will we get a stable phase diagram?

Correct : A. solid + liquid

76. Thermal analysis is defined as

Correct : C. measurement of physical properties as a function of temperature

77. What are the two main techniques for thermal analysis?

Correct : C. tga and dta

78. Dilatometry is also known as by which of the following names?

Correct : D. tma

79. In thermogravimetric analysis, the result obtained appear as a

Correct : A. continuous chart

80. Under conditions of                               heating, decomposition usually take place in thermogravimetry. Fill up the suitable option from the choices given below.

Correct : D. dynamic

81. The Ti and Tf temperature depends on which of the following factor?

Correct : D. atmosphere above the sample

82. What is the definition of a lower critical temperature?

Correct : A. the minimum temperature at which equilibrium is achieved

83. With reference to a two component system, a vapor line indicates

Correct : A. a region where the temperature and pressure remains stable

84. With reference to a two component system, an isobar indicates

Correct : D. a region where the composition lies in equilibrium

85. Which of the following statements is not true for a system that has reached the eutectic temperature?

Correct : A. the system is a open system

86. Which of the following statements are correct about the equilibrium point on a two component system?

Correct : B. the boiling point of the mixture is less than the boiling points of the individual compounds

87. During metastable state, the size of the particle

Correct : A. increases

88. Which of the following is not responsible for phase deposition?

Correct : A. container wall

89. Where does the particle growth occur?

Correct : A. movement of grains

90. Overall transformation rate changes with temperature as follows under what condition?

Correct : B. increases then decreases

91. Acetylene and synthesis gas are examples of

Correct : C. secondary gaseous fuels

92. Alcohol is a primary fuel.

Correct : B. false

93. Which of the fuel does have highest specific energy?

Correct : A. diesel

94. Which type of coal give more amount of heat after combustion?

Correct : A. anthracite

95. Which fuel is best suitable for blast furnace process?

Correct : D. coke

96. Which fuel causes least pollution?

Correct : D. hydrogen gas

97. Which of the gas is not a constituent of biogas?

Correct : D. so2 (sulphur di-oxide)

98. Which fuel can be produced from the carbohydrate content of algae?

Correct : A. butanol

99. Which of the following fuel cannot be used in producing nuclear energy?

Correct : D. deuterium

100. How does the texture of coal changes with its maturity?

Correct : B. becomes hard, more brittle and more tough