Quiznetik
Anatomy | Set 10
1. Which muscle arises in part from the scaphoid tubercle?
A. flexor pollicis brevis
B. abductor pollicis brevis
C. opponens pollicis
D. adductor pollicis
E. first palmar interossei
Correct : B. abductor pollicis brevis
2. Which of the following muscles arises, in part, from the radial collateral ligament of the elbow joint?
A. extensor carpi radialis brevis
B. supinator
C. extensor digiti minimi
D. extensor carpi ulnaris
E. extensor digitorum
Correct : B. supinator
3. Which nerve is a branch of the lateral cord of the brachial plexus?
A. upper subscapular nerve
B. thoracodorsal nerve
C. musculocutaneous nerve
D. ulnar nerve
E. lower subscapular nerve
Correct : C. musculocutaneous nerve
4. The peripheral nerve arising directly from the upper trunk of the brachial plexus is the:
A. dorsal scapular
B. thoracodorsal
C. suprascapular
D. upper subscapular
E. lower subscapular
Correct : C. suprascapular
5. The first part of the subclavian artery:
A. usually gives off no branches
B. lies behind the anterior scalene muscle
C. makes a groove in the dome of the pleura
D. is encircled by the ansa cervicalis
E. on the left lies anterior to the common carotid artery
Correct : C. makes a groove in the dome of the pleura
6. Regarding tissues:
A. cartilage is very vascular
B. ligaments do not stretch
C. deep fascia is not sensitive
D. cardiac muscle is nonstriated
E. periosteum is not sensitive
Correct : B. ligaments do not stretch
7. An example of a secondary cartilaginous joint is:
A. distal tibiofibular joint
B. costochondral joint
C. sagittal suture
D. sternal angle joint
E. knee joint
Correct : D. sternal angle joint
8. Which vessel is not an end-artery?
A. renal artery
B. retinal artery
C. pulmonary artery
D. intercostal artery
E. splenic artery
Correct : D. intercostal artery
9. A group C nerve fibre:
A. is up to 20 nm in diameter
B. is myelinated
C. has motor function
D. is fusimotor to muscle spindles
E. is post-ganglionic autonomic
Correct : E. is post-ganglionic autonomic
10. At birth:
A. the transverse diameter of the thorax is thrice the AP diameter
B. the liver is relatively twice as big as that of the adult
C. the suprarenal gland is twice as big as the kidney
D. the spinal cord extends to L5
E. the rib cage is more vertically inclined than in the adult
Correct : B. the liver is relatively twice as big as that of the adult
11. In the foetal skull:
A. the vertical height of the orbit is equal to the combined vertical heights of the maxilla and the mandible
B. the mandible is ossified at birth
C. the anterior fontanelle is closed at the end of the first year
D. the volume of the vault is equal to that of the face
E. the bones of the face and the vault ossify at six years
Correct : A. the vertical height of the orbit is equal to the combined vertical heights of the maxilla and the mandible
12. Regarding the sympathetic nervous system:
A. every spinal nerve receives a white ramus communicans
B. efferent post ganglionic fibres are myelinated
C. afferent sympathetic fibres synapse in the sympathetic trunk
D. preganglionic cell bodies lie within the lateral horn cells of the T1-L2 spinal segments
E. each cervical ganglion gives off one ramus communicans
Correct : D. preganglionic cell bodies lie within the lateral horn cells of the T1-L2 spinal segments
13. Which of the following nerve roots is correctly associated with the corresponding muscle action?
A. L5 – plantar flexion of the foot
B. L2 – knee extension
C. C5 – abduction of the shoulder
D. C8 – abduction of the thumb
E. S1 – extension of the great toe
Correct : C. C5 – abduction of the shoulder
14. In the skin:
A. apocrine sweat glands are confined to the axillae, breasts and urogenital region
B. dark skinned races possess greater numbers of melanocytes
C. sebaceous glands are abundant on the palms and soles
D. melanocytes predominate in the dermis
E. eccrine glands develop under the influence of the sex hormones
Correct : A. apocrine sweat glands are confined to the axillae, breasts and urogenital region
15. Regarding bone:
A. cancellous and compact bone show marked microscopic differences
B. the clavicle ossifies in membrane
C. the bones of the skull and face ossify in cartilage
D. the epiphyseal plates of growing bones are composed of fibrocartilage
E. sesamoid bones are only associated with flexor tendons
Correct : B. the clavicle ossifies in membrane
16. The metacarpophalangeal joints are:
A. planar
B. ellipsoid
C. hinge
D. saddle
E. ball in socket
Correct : D. saddle
17. Regarding the intrinsic muscles of the hand, which of the following is NOT true?
A. the palmar and dorsal interossei are supplied by the deep branch of the median nerve
B. the intrinsic muscles of the thumb are abductor pollicis brevis, flexor pollicis brevis, opponens pollicis , adductor pollicis, first palmar and first dorsal interossei
C. opponens pollicis acts only on the carpometacarpal joint
D. their motor supply is derived from segment T1 of the spinal cord
E. the thenar muscles are supplied by the recurrent branch of the median nerve
Correct : A. the palmar and dorsal interossei are supplied by the deep branch of the median nerve
18. Regarding the synovial flexor sheaths, which of the following is NOT true?
A. three synovial sheaths are found on the front of the wrist
B. a common synovial sheath envelops all the superficialis and profundus tendons
C. the sheath around flexor pollicis longus tendon extends almost to its insertion
D. the flexor carpi ulnaris tendon has a short sheath
E. the ring, middle and index fingers have digital sheaths that do not extend to the common sheath
Correct : D. the flexor carpi ulnaris tendon has a short sheath
19. The recurrent branch of the median nerve supplies:
A. opponens digiti minimi
B. first dorsal interosseous
C. adductor pollicis
D. first lumbrical
E. abductor pollicis brevis
Correct : C. adductor pollicis
20. The corocobrachialis muscle:
A. is functionally important
B. origin = apex of acromion
C. insertion = lateral border of humerus
D. nerve supply = C4, C5
E. is pierced by the musculocutaneous nerve
Correct : E. is pierced by the musculocutaneous nerve
21. Which structure lies in the deltopectoral groove?
A. median pectoral nerve
B. lateral pectoral nerve
C. cephalic vein
D. basilic vein
E. axillary vein
Correct : C. cephalic vein
22. Which lymph nodes drain the ulnar side of the forearm?
A. infratrochlear
B. supratrochlear
C. infraclavicular
D. anterior axillary
E. ulnar trochlear
Correct : B. supratrochlear
23. Which does NOT enter posterior compartment of the arm?
A. radial nerve
B. profunda brachii artery
C. ulnar nerve
D. posterior cutaneous nerve of forearm
E. superior ulnar collateral artery
Correct : E. superior ulnar collateral artery
24. The annular ligament of the elbow:
A. has minimal usefulness
B. is attached to margins of the radial notch of the ulna
C. is attached to the head and neck of the radius
D. has common attachment with ulnar collateral ligament
E. is attached to the lateral epicondy????????
Correct : B. is attached to margins of the radial notch of the ulna
25. Extensor pollicis brevis:
A. origin – radius and interosseous membrane
B. lies on ulnar side of snuffbox
C. inserts into the base of the first distal phalanx
D. nerve supply = ulnar nerve
E. joins extensor digitorum tendon at metacarpophalangeal joint
Correct : A. origin – radius and interosseous membrane
26. Extensor pollicis longus – which is INCORRECT?
A. origin = ulnar just distal to adductor pollicis longus
B. insertion = base of first distal phalanx
C. tendon hooks around Lister’s tubercle (radius)
D. forms radial boundary of snuffbox
E. nerve supply – posterior interosseous nerve (C7, 8)
Correct : D. forms radial boundary of snuffbox
27. Extensor indicis:
A. origin = radius
B. shares a common synovial sheath with E.D. (?extensor digitorum)
C. tendon lies on radial side of E.D. tendon index finger
D. separate insertion from dorsal expansion E.D.
E. nerve supply = median nerve
Correct : B. shares a common synovial sheath with E.D. (?extensor digitorum)
28. The extensor retinaculum attaches between:
A. radius and ulna
B. scaphoid and ulna
C. radius and triquetral and pisiform
D. radius and lunate
E. trapezium and ulnar
Correct : C. radius and triquetral and pisiform
29. All the following statements concerning the scaphoid bone are true EXCEPT:
A. it articulates with radius proximally in abduction
B. it is the most susceptible of the carpal bones to fracture
C. it participates in the midcarpal joint
D. it receives an attachment for the transverse carpal ligament
E. fracture of the scaphoid is a common cause for median nerve compression in carpal tunnel syndrome
Correct : E. fracture of the scaphoid is a common cause for median nerve compression in carpal tunnel syndrome
30. All of the following structures pass deep to the transverse carpal ligament EXCEPT the:
A. flexor digitorum superficialis tendon
B. flexor digitorum profundus tendon
C. flexor pollicis longus tendon
D. median nerve
E. ulnar artery
Correct : E. ulnar artery
31. Laceration of the recurrent branch of the median nerve results in paralysis of all the following muscles of the thumb EXCEPT:
A. abductor pollicis brevis
B. deep head of flexor pollicis brevis
C. opponens pollicis
D. superficial head of flexor pollicis brevis
E. ulnar artery
Correct : B. deep head of flexor pollicis brevis
32. Which muscle is the odd one out?
A. pronator teres
B. flexor carpi radialis
C. first lumbrical of the hand
D. fourth lumbrical of the hand
E. flexor pollicis longus
Correct : D. fourth lumbrical of the hand
33. Infection in the volar aspect of the little finger can spread to all EXCEPT:
A. distally to the ring finger via the tendon sheath
B. to the flexor sheath of the thumb
C. to the distal forearm through the carpal tunnel
D. rupture of the sheath and spread to deep spaces of the palm
E. ischaemic necrosis may occur to the flexor tendon involved
Correct : A. distally to the ring finger via the tendon sheath
34. Wrist:
A. the flexor retinaculum runs between the styloid process of the radius and the pisiform and hook of hamate
B. the median nerve passes beneath the flexor retinaculum between flexor digitorum superficialis and flexor carpi ulnaris
C. the ulnar nerve lies on the flexor retinaculum with the ulnar artery on its ulnar side
D. the wrist joint involves the radius, ulna, scaphoid, lunate and triquetral bones
E. the radiocarpal joint is separated from the distal radioulnar joint by a triangular fibrocartilage
Correct : E. the radiocarpal joint is separated from the distal radioulnar joint by a triangular fibrocartilage
35. Hand:
A. palmar brevis lies across the base of the thenar eminence
B. abductor pollicis brevis and opponens pollicis both arise from the flexor retinaculum and adjacent trapezium
C. flexor pollicis brevis lies to radial side of abductor pollicis brevis
D. the muscles of the thenar eminence are usually supplied by the recurrent branch of the median nerve
E. opponens pollicis inserts into the whole of the ulnar border of the first metacarpal
Correct : D. the muscles of the thenar eminence are usually supplied by the recurrent branch of the median nerve
36. Trapezius inserts into:
A. vertebral border scapula
B. scapula spine
C. proximal humerus
D. medial clavicle
E. none of the above
Correct : B. scapula spine
37. Myotome of elbow flexion:
A. C5, 6
B. C6, 7
C. C7, 8
D. C5
E. C6
Correct : A. C5, 6
38. Vincula:
A. papillary ridges of skin that form finger prints
B. superficial fibres of palmar aponeurosis that insert into the skin
C. remnant fibres of palmar interossei inserting into the proximal phalanx at the thumb
D. communication between common flexor sheath and sheath of pollicis longus present in 50% of people
E. vascular synovial folds of flexor tendons
Correct : E. vascular synovial folds of flexor tendons
39. Of the hand joints, which is INCORRECT?
A. the midcarpal joint is S shaped
B. joint between hamate and fifth metacarpal is most mobile at four digits
C. the first carpometacarpal joint is reinforced by the medial and palmar ligaments
D. palmar ligaments of metacarpophalangeal joints limit extension of joint
E. interphalangeal joints ????have to obliquely place collateral ligaments as a mechanism of tightening re flexion and extension
Correct : C. the first carpometacarpal joint is reinforced by the medial and palmar ligaments
40. Which is true of brachial plexus?
A. the trunks lie behind scalene muscle
B. accessory phrenic nerve fibres run to superior mediastinum with long thoracic nerve
C. median nerve divides at the carpal tunnel, lateral branch supplies thenar muscles and medial branch supplies lumbricals (2)
D. ulnar nerve in 95% of cases picks up C7 fibres from lateral cord
E. branches of radial nerve rise just proximal to their destination
Correct : D. ulnar nerve in 95% of cases picks up C7 fibres from lateral cord
41. Which of the following structures is likely to get damaged when the semiflexed knee is suddenly rotated medially
A. anterior cruciate ligament
B. lateral meniscus
C. medial meniscus
D. posterior cruciate ligament
Correct : C. medial meniscus
42. Trendelenberg's test is positive in following conditions EXCEPT;
A. dislocation of hip
B. fracture neck femur
C. paralysis of gluteus medius
D. paralysis of gluteus maximus
Correct : D. paralysis of gluteus maximus
43. Gyrus occupying Broca's speech area is
A. superior frontal
B. middle frontal
C. inferior frontal
D. superior temporal
Correct : C. inferior frontal
44. In midbrain following structures are found at the level of occulomotor nerve nucleus
A. red nucleus
B. pretectal nucleus
C. substantia nigra
D. decussation of superior cerebellar peduncle
Correct : D. decussation of superior cerebellar peduncle
45. Following are all the features of cerebellar lesions EXCEPT
A. dysdidochokinesis
B. nystagmus
C. rigidity of voluntary muscles
D. intention tremors
Correct : C. rigidity of voluntary muscles
46. The nerve having Edinger Westphall nucleus as its component is
A. occulomotor
B. trochlear
C. trigeminal
D. abducent
Correct : A. occulomotor
47. Pharyngotypanic tube connects the middle ear cavity with
A. oropharynx
B. nasopharynx
C. nasal cavity
D. laryngo pharynx
Correct : B. nasopharynx
48. Only abductor of vocal cords is
A. posterior cricoarytenoid
B. inter arytenoid
C. lateral crico arytenoid
D. cricothyroid
Correct : A. posterior cricoarytenoid
49. Sensory nerve for upper lip is
A. facial
B. infra orbital
C. buccal
D. external nasal
Correct : B. infra orbital
50. Structure passing deep to hyoglossus is
A. hypoglossal nerve
B. myelohyoid nerve
C. submandibular duct
D. lingual artery
Correct : D. lingual artery
51. Lining epithelium of lung alveolus is
A. simple columnar
B. simple cuboidal
C. simple squamous
D. pseudo stratified ciliated columnar
Correct : C. simple squamous
52. Commonest type of inversion of testes is
A. superior
B. anterior
C. lateral
D. loop
Correct : B. anterior
53. Following are the contents of inguinal canal in males EXCEPT;
A. ilio-inguinal nerve
B. spermatic cord
C. artery to vas deference
D. ilio hypogastric nerve
Correct : D. ilio hypogastric nerve
54. Conjoint tendon is formed by
A. External and internal oblique
B. external oblique and transversus abdominis
C. internal oblique and transversus abdominis
D. internal oblique alone
Correct : C. internal oblique and transversus abdominis
55. Commonest position of appendix is
A. retrocaecal
B. sub caecal
C. pelvic
D. preileal
Correct : A. retrocaecal
56. Nerve piercing and lying on psoas major is
A. ilio inguinal
B. ilio hypogastric
C. femoral
D. genitofemoral
Correct : D. genitofemoral
57. 2nd part of duodenum is developed from
A. foregut and midgut
B. midgut and hindgut
C. only forgut
D. only midgut
Correct : A. foregut and midgut
58. Transverse colon develops from-
A. foregut and midgut
B. midgut and hindgut
C. only hindgut
D. only midgut
Correct : B. midgut and hindgut
59. Following are the boundaries of epiploeic foramen EXCEPT;
A. free edge of lesser omentum
B. quadrate lobe of liver
C. 1st part of duodenum
D. inferior vena cava
Correct : B. quadrate lobe of liver
60. Left testicular vein drains in
A. inferior vena cava
B. left renal
C. left internal iliac
D. left common iliac
Correct : B. left renal
61. All are the contents of supeficial perineal pouch EXCEPT;
A. bulbo urethral gland
B. superior transverse pereni
C. dorsal nerve of pen*s
D. dorsal artery of pen*s
Correct : A. bulbo urethral gland
62. Abnormal lateral curvature of vertebral column is known as
A. kyphosis
B. lordosis
C. scoliosis
D. spondylolisthesis
Correct : C. scoliosis
63. Which of the following nerves is involved in fracture neck humerus?
A. ulnar
B. median
C. axillary
D. radial
Correct : C. axillary
64. Following muscles produce elevation of scapula EXCEPT;
A. rhomboidius major
B. rhomboidius minor
C. trapezius
D. serratus anterior
Correct : D. serratus anterior
65. Following veins are tributaries of portal vein EXCEPT ;
A. right gastric
B. left gastric
C. splenic
D. inf. phrenic
Correct : D. inf. phrenic
66. Following are the single gene disorders EXCEPT;
A. Duchene muscle dystrophy
B. spina bifida
C. haemophilia
D. sickle cell anemia
Correct : B. spina bifida
67. Nerve supply of pyramidalis muscle is
A. ilio inguinal
B. subcostal
C. genitofemoral
D. ilio hypogastric
Correct : B. subcostal
68. Branchial efferent column in pons innervates muscles of
A. larynx
B. mastication
C. pharynx
D. eye
Correct : B. mastication
69. Cerebellum sends efferent fibres to each of the following EXCEPT;
A. red nucleus
B. thalamus
C. substantia nigra
D. reticular formation
Correct : C. substantia nigra
70. The major neurotransmitter secreted in substantia nigra is
A. dopamine
B. serotonin
C. noradrenalin
D. gamma amino butyric acid
Correct : A. dopamine
71. Following muscles are inserted into greater trochanter of femur EXCEPT;
A. gluteus maximus
B. gluteus medius
C. gluteus minimus
D. pyriformis
Correct : A. gluteus maximus
72. Following bones take part in lateral longitudinal arch EXCEPT;
A. calcaneous
B. cuboid
C. talus
D. 5th metacarpal
Correct : C. talus
73. First tributary of internal jugular vein is
A. superior thyroid vein
B. inferior petrosal sinus
C. lingual vein
D. facial vein
Correct : B. inferior petrosal sinus
74. Nerve supplying the skin over the mandible is
A. great auricular
B. greater occipital
C. mandibular
D. facial
Correct : A. great auricular
75. Calcitonin is secreted by
A. follicular cells of thyroid
B. chief cells of thyroid
C. oxyphil cells of parathyroid
D. parafollicular cells of parathyroid
Correct : B. chief cells of thyroid
76. Following are the contents of middle ear cavity EXCEPT;
A. incus
B. stapedius
C. chorda tympani
D. facial nerve
Correct : D. facial nerve
77. Which nerve injury results in ptosis
A. occulumotor
B. trochlear
C. supraorbital
D. facial
Correct : A. occulumotor
78. Following structures represent derivatives of dorsal mesogastrium EXCEPT;
A. greater omentum
B. lesser omentum
C. gastrosplenic ligament
D. linorenal ligament
Correct : A. greater omentum
79. Following structures form stomach bed EXCEPT;
A. splenic vein
B. splenic artery
C. left kidney
D. left suprarenal
Correct : A. splenic vein
80. Structure crossed by root of mesentry is
A. left ureter
B. left gonadal vessels
C. inferior mesenteric artery
D. 3rd part of duodenum
Correct : D. 3rd part of duodenum
81. Nerve carrying secretomotor fibres for parotid gland is
A. auriculo temporal
B. great auricular
C. zygomatico temporal
D. posterior auricular
Correct : A. auriculo temporal
82. The corneal reflex is absent in the lesion of
A. supra orbital
B. opthalmic nerve
C. infra orbital
D. occulomotor
Correct : B. opthalmic nerve
83. Average diameter of ureter is
A. 3mm
B. 5mm
C. 7mm
D. 9mm
Correct : A. 3mm
84. Lymph nodes receiving lymphatics from testis are-
A. deep inguinal
B. internal iliac
C. external iliac
D. para-aortic
Correct : D. para-aortic
85. All are the contents of spermatic cord EXCEPT;
A. ductus deference
B. testicular artery
C. ilioinguinal nerve
D. pampiniform plexus
Correct : C. ilioinguinal nerve
86. Following muscles are the abductors of eye EXCEPT;
A. superior oblique
B. superior rectus
C. inferior oblique
D. lateral rectus
Correct : B. superior rectus
87. Disc between which vertebra corresponds to the highest point on the iliac crest?
A. L1-L2
B. L2-L3
C. L3-L4
D. L4-L5
Correct : C. L3-L4
88. Following muscles produce medial rotation of humerus EXCEPT;
A. pectoralis major
B. pectoralis minor
C. subscapularis
D. lattisimus dorsi
Correct : B. pectoralis minor
89. Damage to which nerve results in an inability to oppose thumb to the little finger?
A. median
B. ulnar
C. radial
D. anterior interosseous
Correct : A. median
90. Following structures are related to mediastinal surface of left lung EXCEPT;
A. left atrium
B. ascending aorta
C. arch of aorta
D. oesophagus
Correct : A. left atrium
91. Following are the features of broncho pulmonary segment EXCEPT;
A. wedge shape mass of lung
B. contains segmental artery
C. contains segmental vein
D. aerated by tertiary bronchus
Correct : C. contains segmental vein
92. Tract present in superior. cerebellar peduncle is
A. posterior spino cerebellar
B. anterior spinocerebellar
C. cortico ponto cerebellar
D. olivo- cerebellar
Correct : B. anterior spinocerebellar
93. The nucleus located deep to facial colliculus is
A. trigeminal
B. abducens
C. facial
D. vestibulo cochlear
Correct : B. abducens
94. Gland receiving secretomotor fibres from pterygo palatine ganglion is -
A. lacrimal
B. submandibular
C. sublingual
D. parotid
Correct : A. lacrimal
95. Following are the contents of carpal tunnel EXCEPT;
A. median nerve
B. ulnar nerve
C. flexor pollicis longus
D. flexor carpi radialis
Correct : B. ulnar nerve
96. Nerve responsible for fine movements of hand is
A. radial
B. ulnar
C. median
D. post. interosseous
Correct : B. ulnar
97. Posterior cord of brachial plexus gives following branches EXCEPT;
A. thoracodorsal
B. axillary
C. suprascapular
D. subscapular
Correct : C. suprascapular
98. Pulsations of the femoral artery can be felt at
A. mid inguinal point
B. mid point of inguinal ligament
C. 3.8cm infero lateral to pubic tubercle
D. 1.5cm above mid inguinal point
Correct : A. mid inguinal point
99. Following muscles are supplied by femoral nerve EXCEPT
A. psoas major
B. iliacus
C. pectineus
D. sartorius
Correct : A. psoas major
100. Following are the sites of internal haemorrhoids EXCEPT;
A. 3 o'clock
B. 5 o'clock
C. 7 o'clock
D. 11 o'clock
Correct : B. 5 o'clock