Quiznetik
Thermal Engineering 2 | Set 3
1. Why are salts deposited on the evaporator drum?
A. due to continuous circulation of water
B. due to usage of hard water containing calcium content
C. due to circulation of impure water
D. due to the chemicals added in water
Correct : C. due to circulation of impure water
2. What is feature of the Loffler boilers?
A. evaporating water by super heated steam
B. provide better efficiency by re-circulating gas coming out of turbine
C. produce better steam quality by heating the boiler furnace above critical degrees
D. eliminate the extra components used
Correct : A. evaporating water by super heated steam
3. What is the major difficulty of the La-Mont boiler?
A. unstable water circulation
B. deposition of salts
C. overheating of the components
D. boiler working is slow
Correct : B. deposition of salts
4. Which is the most recent economical method of power generation from boilers?
A. natural circulation boiler
B. fire tube boiler
C. forced circulation
D. super critical boiler
Correct : D. super critical boiler
5. Which of the following boilers has the highest heat transfer capacity?
A. subcritical boiler
B. critical boiler
C. forced circulation boiler
D. supercritical boiler
Correct : D. supercritical boiler
6. Why boiler draught is most essential part of the thermal plants?
A. serves combustion by supplying ample amount of air
B. helps in maintaining air ventilation
C. required to maintain constant air flow
D. stabilizes the boiler system
Correct : C. required to maintain constant air flow
7. Which is the correct formula of total draught loss?
A. ht = hv + hb + hc + hcd
B. ht = hv + hb – hc + hcd
C. ht = hv – hb + hc + hcd
D. ht = hv – hb – hc – hcd
Correct : A. ht = hv + hb + hc + hcd
8. By what is natural draught produced?
A. air duct
B. chimney
C. locomotive exhaust
D. air blower
Correct : B. chimney
9. Which of the following given below as the affect on amount natural draught?
A. boiler operation
B. size of the furnace
C. grade of the fuel
D. dust content in the fuel is used
Correct : A. boiler operation
10. When is artificial draught preferred?
A. when quick evacuation of flue gases is required
B. when we choose large power plant systems
C. when draught produced by chimney is not sufficient
D. when there are many components inside the boiler
Correct : C. when draught produced by chimney is not sufficient
11. Artificial draught is also called as _______
A. force draught
B. induced draught
C. balanced draught
D. mechanical draught
Correct : D. mechanical draught
12. What is installed to transfer air into furnace in forced draught system?
A. air blower
B. tuyeres
C. draft gauges
D. cyclone separator
Correct : A. air blower
13. Where is blower installed in induced draught system?
A. near the boiler
B. base of the chimney
C. above the boiler
D. between economizer and air preheater
Correct : B. base of the chimney
14. How can exhaust gas be recovered in the induced draught?
A. by installing the forced draught fan at the starting point
B. by extending the chimney’s height
C. by inletting high amount of air from multiple air ducts
D. by installing air preheater and economizer along the gas path
Correct : D. by installing air preheater and economizer along the gas path
15. Which is most preferred type of draught system?
A. chimney draught
B. fan draught
C. force draught
D. balanced draught
Correct : D. balanced draught
16. Which type of draught system is used in the locomotives?
A. natural draught system
B. balanced draught system
C. forced draught system
D. induced steam draught system
Correct : D. induced steam draught system
17. Which draught system is also known as turbine draught?
A. forced steam draught
B. induced steam draught
C. natural draught
D. fan draught
Correct : A. forced steam draught
18. Which draught system is used as conjunction with chimney draught?
A. forced steam draught
B. forced draught
C. induced draught
D. balanced draught
Correct : A. forced steam draught
19. There are two types of water feeding in a boiler, they are ________ and _________
A. open feed system and closed feed system
B. condensed and raw
C. feed-water and clean water
D. hot and cold water
Correct : A. open feed system and closed feed system
20. In a fire tube boiler, the water to be heated is kept in the ________
A. tubes of the setup
B. shell of the setup with hot gas in tubes
C. tank with a fire chamber that conducts heat by steel rods
D. tank and heated by fire below it
Correct : B. shell of the setup with hot gas in tubes
21. Which of the following statement is wrong?
A. water tube boilers are internally fired
B. locomotive boiler is a water tube boiler
C. la-mont boiler is a low pressure water tube boiler
D. all of the mentioned
Correct : D. all of the mentioned
22. An air preheater is installed ___________
A. between the economiser and chimney
B. before the superheater
C. before the economiser
D. none of the mentioned
Correct : A. between the economiser and chimney
23. What is the length of shell of a Locomotive boiler?
A. 2m
B. 3m
C. 4m
D. 6m
Correct : C. 4m
24. What is the function of a flywheel?
A. to convert reciprocating motion of the piston into rotary motion
B. to prevent fluctuation of speed
C. to keep the engine speed uniform at all load conditions
D. to convert rotary motion of the crankshaft into to and fro motion of the valve rod
Correct : B. to prevent fluctuation of speed
25. The shell diameter of a Locomotive boiler is?
A. 1.5m
B. 1m
C. 2m
D. 2.5m
Correct : A. 1.5m
26. Which of the following is a water tube boiler?
A. lancashire boiler
B. cochran boiler
C. babcock & wilcox boiler
D. locomotive boiler
Correct : C. babcock & wilcox boiler
27. The number of fire tubes in a Cochran boiler are ___________
A. 75
B. 165
C. 225
D. 175
Correct : B. 165
28. The chimney draught varies with?
A. climatic conditions
B. temperature of furnace gases
C. height of chimney
D. all of the mentioned
Correct : D. all of the mentioned
29. The diagram factor is the ratio of ___________
A. area of actual indicator diagram to the area of theoretical indicator diagram
B. actual work done per stroke to the theoretical work done per stroke
C. actual mean effective pressure to the theoretical mean effective pressure
D. any of the above mentioned
Correct : D. any of the above mentioned
30. The diameter of a cylindrical shell of a Scotch marine boiler varies from ___________
A. 3.5 to 4.5m
B. 1.5 to 2m
C. 2.5 to 3.5m
D. none of the mentioned
Correct : C. 2.5 to 3.5m
31. Lancashire boiler has _____ internal flue tubes.
A. 1
B. 3
C. 2
D. 4
Correct : C. 2
32. Locomotive boiler is a ___________
A. single tube, vertical, externally fired & stationary boiler
B. single tube, horizontal, internally fired& stationary boiler
C. multitubular, horizontal, externally fired & stationary boiler
D. multitubular, horizontal, internally fired & mobile boiler
Correct : D. multitubular, horizontal, internally fired & mobile boiler
33. The equivalent evaporation is defined as?
A. the ratio of heat actually used in producing the steam to the heat liberated in the furnace
B. the amount of water evaporated or steam produced in kg of fuel burnt
C. the amount of water evaporated from and at 100 degree c into dry & saturated steam
D. none of the mentioned
Correct : C. the amount of water evaporated from and at 100 degree c into dry & saturated steam
34. Non Condensing steam turbine can also be called as _________
A. extraction steam turbine
B. back pressure steam turbine
C. impulse steam turbine
D. none of the mentioned
Correct : B. back pressure steam turbine
35. Condensing turbine is used for __________
A. central power generation
B. to reduce outlet temperature
C. to increase efficiency of steam
D. none of the mentioned
Correct : A. central power generation
36. Steam turbine is classified on basis of __________
A. type of blades
B. exhausting condition
C. type of steam flow
D. all of the mentioned
Correct : D. all of the mentioned
37. High pressure turbine is a Non-Condensing turbine due to __________
A. exhaust conditions
B. axial flow of the steam
C. pressure-velocity compounding
D. velocity compounding
Correct : A. exhaust conditions
38. Impulse blades are in the shape of __________
A. rain drop
B. circular
C. half moon
D. none of the mentioned
Correct : C. half moon
39. Astern turbines are used in _________
A. power generation
B. marine purposes
C. aircraft
D. none of the mentioned
Correct : B. marine purposes
40. In condensing turbines vacuum is obtained by ____________
A. sudden pressure drop
B. removal of non condensable gases
C. sudden drop in pressure and by removal of non condensable gases
D. none of the mentioned
Correct : C. sudden drop in pressure and by removal of non condensable gases
41. Cross compound steam turbines are once used in _____________
A. generation of electricity
B. marine ships
C. automobiles
D. none of the mentioned
Correct : B. marine ships
42. Where in industries do we find back-pressure turbines?
A. at a point in industry where waste steam has to be employed
B. when pressure needs to be applied at rear end
C. when one turbine bolster other
D. there is a requirement of process steam at single pressure
Correct : D. there is a requirement of process steam at single pressure
43. The energy conversion occurring in a steam turbine is a ______ step process.
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Correct : B. 2
44. A steam turbine is basically an assemblage of ____________
A. nozzle & condenser
B. blades & condenser
C. nozzle & blades
D. nozzle & fans
Correct : C. nozzle & blades
45. A regenerative steam cycle renders ____________
A. decreased work output per unit mass of steam
B. increased thermal efficiency
C. increased work output per unit mass of steam
D. decreased work output per unit mass of steam as well as increased thermal efficiency
Correct : D. decreased work output per unit mass of steam as well as increased thermal efficiency
46. The reheat factor is the ratio of the ____________
A. total useful heat drop to the total isentropic heat drop
B. cumulative heat drop to the isentropic heat drop
C. isentropic heat drop to the heat supplied
D. none of the mentioned
Correct : B. cumulative heat drop to the isentropic heat drop
47. Thermal equilibrium means that the flow of steam is ____________
A. hyperbolic
B. isothermal
C. isentropic
D. polytropic
Correct : C. isentropic
48. Multi-stage steam turbines are of the ___________
A. reaction type
B. velocity compounded type
C. pressure compounded type
D. all of the mentioned
Correct : D. all of the mentioned
49. The impulse reaction turbine has its driving force ___________
A. partly as an impulsive force and partly as a reaction force
B. as an impulsive force
C. as a reaction force
D. none of the mentioned
Correct : A. partly as an impulsive force and partly as a reaction force
50. In a nozzle, whole frictional loss is assumed to occur between ___________
A. inlet and throat
B. throat and exit
C. inlet and outlet
D. none of the mentioned
Correct : B. throat and exit
51. The ratio of total useful heat drop to the total isentropic heat drop is called?
A. rankine efficiency
B. stage efficiency
C. internal efficiency
D. none of the mentioned
Correct : C. internal efficiency
52. What is the action of steam in a steam turbine?
A. neither static nor dynamic
B. dynamic
C. static
D. both dynamic & static
Correct : B. dynamic
53. The critical pressure gives the velocity of steam at the throat ___________
A. equal to the velocity of sound
B. more than velocity of sound
C. less than the velocity of light
D. none of the mentioned
Correct : A. equal to the velocity of sound
54. The flow through a nozzle is regarded as ___________
A. isothermal flow
B. isobaric flow
C. isochoric flow
D. isentropic flow
Correct : D. isentropic flow
55. The steam leaves the nozzle at a ____________
A. low pressure and a high velocity
B. high pressure and a high velocity
C. high pressure and a low velocity
D. low pressure and a low velocity
Correct : A. low pressure and a high velocity
56. De-Laval turbine is a ____________
A. multi rotor impulse turbine
B. impulse reaction turbine
C. single rotor impulse turbine
D. none of the mentioned
Correct : C. single rotor impulse turbine
57. The Parsons’ reaction turbine has ____________
A. only moving blades
B. only fixed blades
C. fixed and moving blades of different shape
D. identical fixed and moving blades
Correct : D. identical fixed and moving blades
58. The ratio of the useful heat drop to the isentropic heat drop is called ____________
A. condenser efficiency
B. nozzle efficiency
C. vacuum efficiency
D. boiler efficiency
Correct : B. nozzle efficiency
59. Rateau turbine is ____________
A. pressure-velocity compounded turbine
B. simple reaction turbine
C. velocity compounded turbine
D. pressure compounded turbine
Correct : D. pressure compounded turbine
60. The value of the reheat factor varies from ____________
A. 1.08 to 1.10
B. 1.2 to 1.6
C. 1.6 to 2
D. 1.02 to 1.06
Correct : D. 1.02 to 1.06
61. In reaction turbines, the axial thrust is due to ____________
A. pressure drop across the rotor
B. change in axial velocity
C. both pressure drop across the rotor and change in axial velocity
D. none of the mentioned
Correct : C. both pressure drop across the rotor and change in axial velocity
62. The flow of steam is super-sonic ____________
A. in the convergent portion of the nozzle
B. at the entrance to the nozzle
C. at the throat of the nozzle
D. in the divergent portion of the nozzle
Correct : D. in the divergent portion of the nozzle
63. The variation of steam pressure in the nozzle depends upon ____________
A. dryness fraction of steam
B. specific volume of steam
C. velocity of steam
D. all of the mentioned
Correct : D. all of the mentioned
64. A binary vapour plant consists of ____________
A. mercury boiler
B. steam turbine
C. steam condenser
D. all of the mentioned
Correct : D. all of the mentioned
65. The steam enters the nozzle at a ____________
A. low pressure and a low velocity
B. high pressure and a low velocity
C. low pressure and a high velocity
D. high pressure and a high velocity
Correct : D. high pressure and a high velocity
66. In a reaction turbine, when steam flows through the fixed blades ____________
A. pressure decreases while velocity increases
B. pressure increases while velocity decreases
C. pressure and velocity both increases
D. pressure and velocity both decreases
Correct : A. pressure decreases while velocity increases
67. Steam turbines are used for ____________
A. electric power generation
B. large marine propulsion
C. direct drive of fans, compressors, pumps
D. all of the mentioned
Correct : D. all of the mentioned
68. Curtis turbine is a ____________
A. pressure compounded turbine
B. velocity compounded turbine
C. simple reaction turbine
D. pressure-velocity compounded turbine
Correct : D. pressure-velocity compounded turbine
69. Which of the following statement is correct?
A. the expansion of steam in a nozzle follows rankine cycle
B. the friction in the nozzle increases the dryness fraction of steam
C. the pressure of steam at throat is called critical pressure
D. all of the mentioned
Correct : D. all of the mentioned
70. What is the purpose of governing in steam turbines?
A. reheat the steam and improve its quality
B. maintain the speed of the turbine
C. reduce the effective heat drop
D. completely balance against end thrust
Correct : B. maintain the speed of the turbine
71. The ratio of the isentropic heat drop to the heat supplied is called ____________
A. stage efficiency
B. reheat factor
C. internal efficiency
D. rankine efficiency
Correct : D. rankine efficiency
72. The reheat factor depends upon ____________
A. exit pressure
B. turbine stage efficiency
C. initial pressure and superheat
D. all of the mentioned
Correct : D. all of the mentioned
73. What is the critical pressure ratio for initially dry saturated steam?
A. 0.546
B. 0.577
C. 0.586
D. 0.578
Correct : B. 0.577
74. In an impulse turbine, steam expands ____________
A. wholly in nozzle
B. partly in the nozzle and partly in blades
C. wholly in blades
D. none of the mentioned
Correct : A. wholly in nozzle
75. A steam nozzle converts ____________
A. heat energy of steam into potential energy
B. potential energy into heat energy of steam
C. heat energy of steam into kinetic energy
D. kinetic energy into heat energy of steam
Correct : C. heat energy of steam into kinetic energy
76. If the critical pressure ratio for steam is 0.546, then the steam is initially ____________
A. wet
B. dry saturated
C. superheated
D. none of the mentioned
Correct : C. superheated
77. A stage, in reaction turbine, is represented by ____________
A. each row of blades
B. number of entries of steam
C. number of exits of steam
D. none of the mentioned
Correct : A. each row of blades
78. Steam turbines may be classified according to ____________
A. number of stages
B. direction of steam flow
C. mode of steam action
D. all of the mentioned
Correct : D. all of the mentioned
79. A steam nozzle converts ____________
A. heat energy of steam into kinetic energy
B. kinetic energy of steam into heat energy
C. potential energy into heat energy
D. none of the mentioned
Correct : A. heat energy of steam into kinetic energy
80. A steam turbine with no nozzle is?
A. reaction turbine
B. impulse turbine
C. reaction & impulse turbines
D. none of the mentioned
Correct : A. reaction turbine
81. _______ of electricity in United States is produced using steam turbine.
A. 88%
B. 50%
C. 100%
D. 77%
Correct : A. 88%
82. When steam pressure ________ it becomes superficial fluid.
A. decreases
B. increases
C. steam can not become superficial fluid
D. none of the mentioned
Correct : B. increases
83. Steam turbines used in nuclear reactors use __________
A. superficial fluids
B. high pressure steam
C. specific heat
D. none of the mentioned
Correct : A. superficial fluids
84. Superficial steam power plants operate at _____ temperatures.
A. high
B. low
C. constant
D. none of the mentioned
Correct : A. high
85. Energy efficiency of superficial steam is _________
A. low
B. high
C. same as other steams
D. none of the mentioned
Correct : B. high
86. Superficial steam turbines can be operated at ________
A. medium speeds
B. low speeds
C. high speeds
D. none of the mentioned
Correct : C. high speeds
87. Superficial steam turbines releases _______ CO2.
A. high
B. low
C. does not release
D. none of the mentioned
Correct : A. high
88. Which statement about reaction turbine is false?
A. steam does not expand in nozzle
B. blades acts like nozzles
C. steam expands as flows over the rotor blades
D. steam continuously losses its heat as flows over the rotor blades
Correct : D. steam continuously losses its heat as flows over the rotor blades
89. Reaction turbines are characterized by ___________
A. relatively low rpm and steam expension over nozzle
B. relatively high rpm and steam expension over nozzle
C. relatively low rpm and steam expension over rotor blades
D. relatively high rpm and steam expansion over rotor blades
Correct : C. relatively low rpm and steam expension over rotor blades
90. In condensing turbine what is the back pressure of the turbine?
A. very high
B. above atmospheric pressure
C. equal to atmospheric pressure
D. below atmospheric pressure
Correct : D. below atmospheric pressure
91. Having two separate units for process heat and power is?
A. useful
B. useless
C. pollution reducing
D. none of the mentioned
Correct : B. useless
92. Back pressure turbine is placed between ____________
A. turbine & pump
B. boiler & pump
C. turbine & heat exchanger
D. boiler & turbine
Correct : D. boiler & turbine
93. Addition of an infinitesimal amount of heat at the highest temperature is because ___________
A. to initiate reheating
B. to initiate regeneration
C. to initiate superheating
D. none of the mentioned
Correct : C. to initiate superheating
94. High moisture content is involved during expansion of steam because ___________
A. to ensure uniform heating
B. to ensure uniform cooling
C. to obtain a higher temperature of heat addition
D. to obtain a lower temperature of heat addition
Correct : C. to obtain a higher temperature of heat addition
95. What is the relation of the mean temperature of heat addition and cycle efficiency?
A. both are inversely proportional
B. both are directly proportional
C. both are independent of each other
D. none of the mentioned
Correct : B. both are directly proportional
96. Temperature of heat rejection in a condenser can be lowered by using?
A. lubricant
B. oil
C. refrigerant
D. diesel
Correct : C. refrigerant
97. The use of which of the following becomes necessary during expansion of steam?
A. reheat
B. regeneration
C. refrigeration
D. superheat
Correct : A. reheat
98. What is the specific heat of the ideal working fluid used in vapour power cycle?
A. should be constant
B. should be large
C. should be small
D. none of the mentioned
Correct : C. should be small
99. What is the importance of the freezing point of the working fluid in the vapour power cycle?
A. freezing point of working fluid should be below the room temperature
B. freezing point of working fluid should be above the room temperature
C. freezing point of working fluid should be equal to the room temperature
D. does not have any importance
Correct : A. freezing point of working fluid should be below the room temperature
100. The engines which are operating on gas power cycle are?
A. cyclic
B. non-cyclic
C. either cyclic or non-cyclic
D. none of the mentioned
Correct : C. either cyclic or non-cyclic