1. In the expansion process, which of the following remains constant?
Correct : D. enthalpy
2. The COP of cycle is given by(Q2=heat absorbed by evaporator and Wc=work done by compressor)
Correct : C. q2/wc
3. Which of the following is recommended in a refrigeration cycle?
Correct : C. both of the mentioned
4. A condenser must and then the compressed refrigerant.
Correct : D. desuperheat, condense
5. In absorption refrigeration cycle, which of the following is used?
Correct : C. both of the mentioned
6. In absorption system, compressor in vapour compression cycle is replaced by absorber- generator assembly.
Correct : A. true
7. In the aqua-ammonia absorption system,
Correct : B. ammonia is the refrigerant and water is the absorbent
8. Which of the following statement is true?
Correct : A. ammonia vapour is absorbed in water
9. Which of the following condenses first?
Correct : B. water vapour
10. The vapour going to condenser is in temperature and in ammonia.
Correct : D. lower, richer
11. Lithium bromide-water vapour is another absorption refrigeration system.
Correct : A. true
12. Water is used as a in air conditioning units.
Correct : B. refrigerant
13. Room air conditioners and packaged units are examples of
Correct : A. direct expansion systems
14. Which of the following is not a component of packaged air conditioners?
Correct : C. chiller
15. In a chilled water system, the refrigerant is used to cool the air directly while in the direct expansion system, a secondary medium like water is used to cool the air.
Correct : B. false
16. In which component of the chilled water system, the return air and the fresh air mixture is filtered?
Correct : A. fan coil unit
17. Which of the following qualities is not possessed by the filters in the air conditioning system?
Correct : D. they should offer high frictional resistance to the airflow
18. Viscous type filters are made of screens of spilt wire and coated with non-drying viscous oil in order to catch and remove the dust particles from the incoming air.
Correct : A. true
19. Which of the following statements about electric precipitators is false?
Correct : D. dust particles get attached to the positive electrode
20. The process of extraction of the certain required amount of water from air is known as
Correct : D. dehumidification
21. Which of the following is capable of absorbing excess moisture from the air?
Correct : C. salts of calcium or ammonia
22. Open cooling system is also called as
Correct : B. once through system
23. How many number of spray nozzle does each module on spray pond cooling system contains?
Correct : D. 4
24. Which of the following is the simplest method of cooling the condenser water?
Correct : A. spray cooling pond
25. In which type of cooling system are nozzles arranged on different elevation?
Correct : B. double deck system
26. What are used in the direct flow system to transverse the pond before uniting at intake?
Correct : C. baffle walls
27. What type of cooling system is used in the large power plants?
Correct : C. cooling towers
28. How does outside air enter into the wet cooling system?
Correct : B. louvers
29. Why is exhaust steam coming out of turbine is admitted to a steam header?
Correct : C. to decrease the pressure drop
30. In which system is Cooling of hot water is done on tray as step by?
Correct : C. atmospheric cooling tower
31. How is air produced in mechanical draught cooling tower?
Correct : B. propeller fans
32. Why is induced draught considered better than the forced draught?
Correct : A. because power requirement is high for forced draught
33. Nozzles are used to control the ___________
Correct : B. rate of flow
34. A nozzle used to send fluid in coherent stream is called as ________
Correct : A. jet
35. In fountains the type of nozzle used is _______
Correct : D. laminar jet
36. Nozzles used in blast furnaces are called as _______
Correct : C. tuyeres
37. If mach number is less than one then its flow is ______________
Correct : A. subsonic flow
38. Nozzle used in rocket engine is __________
Correct : C. convergent – divergent nozzle
39. In rocket engine the flow in the throat of the nozzle is __________
Correct : A. subsonic
40. When mach number is greater than one the flow is ________
Correct : B. supersonic
41. In rocket engines the amount of expansion in Nozzle determines the __________
Correct : C. exit temperature & pressure
42. Pressure ratios below 20 are used in _____________ engines.
Correct : C. heavy frame engines
43. Aeroderivative engines have pressure ratios ___________
Correct : A. greater than 30
44. Aeroderivative engines are used where ____________ power units are required.
Correct : B. smaller
45. Gas turbines operate at pressures ________ than critical pressure ratio.
Correct : B. lesser
46. Critical pressure ratio is ratios of pressures at _________ discharge.
Correct : D. maximum
47. Coefficient of velocity of nozzle is _______________
Correct : B. actual velocity/theoretical velocity
48. Coefficient of discharge of Nozzle is _______
Correct : B. cd = cc*cv
49. Coefficient of contraction is the__________
Correct : A. ratio of actual cross sectional area to geometric cross sectional area
50. Pressure loss occurs in nozzle due to __________
Correct : C. frictional forces
51. Head loss in nozzles occurs due to __________
Correct : A. pipes head loss
52. At vena contracta the velocity is _________ and pressure is ___________
Correct : C. highest, lowest
53. When flow converts from supersonic to subsonic then __________ is produced.
Correct : A. shock wave
54. Shock wave causes instantaneous _________ to the subsonic speed.
Correct : B. decrease
55. Mixture of steam and liquid water is called as _________
Correct : B. wet steam
56. Supersaturated steam is also called as _________
Correct : C. two phase mix
57. If heat is added to the wet steam temperature _________
Correct : C. raises after sometime
58. After steam bubbles break the water surface, they carry water droplets this is called as ________
Correct : A. entrainment
59. Entrainment happens at __________
Correct : B. outlet of the boiler
60. Resistance of water dominating the steam is called as _______
Correct : B. erosion
61. When steam is transported dryness fraction _________
Correct : B. decreases
62. Coefficient of discharge is the __________ of Actual discharge to the theoretical discharge.
Correct : A. ratio
63. Coefficient of discharge is used to measure ___________
Correct : D. resistance offered by the nozzle
64. Unit of flow resistance is _________
Correct : D. no unit
65. Coefficient of discharge is the ____________
Correct : A. product of coefficient of velocity and coefficient of contraction
66. Coefficient of discharge is _____________
Correct : B. inversely proportional to square of the coefficient of discharge
67. For sharp edge orifice, coefficient of discharge lies between ___________
Correct : A. 0.61 – 0.64
68. In the equation Cd=1/K(0.5) what does K mean ?
Correct : C. flow resistance
69. A turbine having alternate blades and nozzles is called as _______________
Correct : A. impulse turbine
70. Multi stage arrangement of turbines is called as __________
Correct : C. compounding
71. Compounding __________ efficiency at low speed.
Correct : B. increase
72. In velocity compounded turbines flow passage is from ____________
Correct : D. none of the mentioned
73. A velocity compounded impulse turbine is also called as __________
Correct : A. curtis wheel
74. Reaction turbine is also called as _________
Correct : C. parsons turbine
75. Compounding is used for _________ power applications.
Correct : B. high
76. Which type of boiler is it when the furnace is placed in the region of boiling water?
Correct : A. internally fired boiler
77. What type of boiler is a Lamont boiler?
Correct : A. forced circulation
78. What is called as the heart of the Lamont boiler?
Correct : B. centrifugal pump
79. In what form are the boiler’s tube arrange in Lamont boiler?
Correct : C. parallel in horizontal
80. Through which does the even circulation of feed water is possible in Lamont boiler?
Correct : A. nozzles
81. What is the pressure range between which Lamont boilers operates?
Correct : B. 120-160bar
82. What type of steam is generated by evaporator tube of Lamont boiler?
Correct : A. saturated steam
83. What is the main disadvantage of Lamont boiler?
Correct : C. formation of bubbles
84. What type of boiler is a Benson boiler?
Correct : A. super critical boiler
85. What is the capacity of Benson boiler?
Correct : B. 150 tonnes/hr & above
86. What is the major disadvantage of the Benson boilers?
Correct : C. deposition of salts
87. Why starting valve is closed and valve 2 is opened while taking boiler on range in Benson boiler?
Correct : A. avoid excessive heating of tube
88. What is the function of boiler?
Correct : C. to generate steam at constant pressure
89. Why single boiler unit per turbine is equipped commonly?
Correct : A. for better turbine control
90. How can be the plant efficiency of steam power plant is increased?
Correct : A. by using high pressure and high temperature steam
91. What is the temperature at which the steam boilers are capable to withstand?
Correct : C. 540oc
92. What is needed to be increased to increase the heat transfer rate in the boiler?
Correct : C. water velocities
93. In what is water in high pressure boiler circulated through?
Correct : D. tubes
94. Where is water steam separator drum located in Lamont boiler?
Correct : D. outside of boiler
95. Which of the given boilers velocity of flue gases is greater than velocity of sound?
Correct : D. velox boiler
96. Which boiler is most successful boiler in the gas turbine industries?
Correct : D. can increase heat transfer without changing its size
97. What type of boiler is a Velox boiler?
Correct : A. forced circulation boiler
98. What is used to heat the feed water which is used for recirculation through tubes?
Correct : C. economizer
99. How many circuits are there in the Schmidt-Hartmann boiler?
Correct : B. 2
100. Which type of circulation is incurred in Schmidt-Hartmann boiler?