1. The ability to separate echos from reflectors close together in depth is called:
Correct : A. Resolution
2. Greater depth of penetration in coarse grained material may be achieved using:
Correct : D. Lower frequencies
3. Lower frequency transducers produce:
Correct : B. Deeper penetration, less attentuation and greater beam spread
4. Spurious indications might be caused by which of the following?
Correct : A. Mode conversion from beam spread in a long specimen
5. The portion of a test piece which is represented by the CRT screen area from zero to
the rightmost edge of the initial pulse is called:
Correct : B. The near field
6. The depth of penetration of surface waves is approximately:
Correct : A. One wavelength
7. An ultrasonic test using a straight beam contact search unit is being conducted
through the thickness of a flat part such as a plate. This test should detect:
Correct : A. Laminar-type flaws with major dimensions parallel to the rolled surface
8. The first critical angle is defined as the longitudinal wave incident angle which results
in:
Correct : A. A refracted longitudinal wave of ninety degrees
9. The number of complete waves which pass a given point in a given period of time
(usually one second) is referred to as the:
Correct : C. Frequency of a wave motion
10. The speed of sound in a given material depends on:
Correct : C. The density and elasticity of the material
11. AA screen pattern containing a large number of low-level indications (often reffered to
as ‘hash’) could be caused by:
Correct : C. Coarse grained material
12. In an A scan presentation, the horizontal base line represents the:
Correct : C. Elapsed time or distance
13. An ultrasonic instrument control which is used to expand or contract the horizontal
base line of an A scan display is called:
Correct : A. The sweep length or range control
14. In a basic ultrasonic test pattern (A scan) for contact testing, the initial pulse (assume
no sweep delay is used):
Correct : A. Is the high indication on the extreme left side of the screen that represents the entry surface of the inspected part
15. AA term used in ultrasonics to express the rate at which sound waves pass through
various substances is:
Correct : B. Velocity
16. Transducer focal lengths are normally specified as:
Correct : A. Distance in steel
17. The second critical angle is defined as the longitudinal wave incident angle which
results in:
Correct : B. A refracted shear wave of ninety degrees
18. Spurious or nonrelevant indications might be suspected if:
Correct : A. Indications are unusually consistent in amplitude and appearance
19. A A disadvantage of lithium sulfate as a transducer material is that:
Correct : B. It is soluble in water
20. An advantage of using a ceramic transducer in search units is that:
Correct : A. It is one of the most efficient generators of ultrasonic energy
21. The three most common modes of sound vibration are:
Correct : B. Longitudinal, transverse and rayleigh waves
22. A A larger diameter crystal results in:
Correct : C. Less beam spread
23. Entry surface resolution is a characteristic of an ultrasonic testing system which
defines its ability to:
Correct : D. Detect discontinuities located just beneath the entry surface in the part being tested
24. Higher frequency transducers produce which of the following?
Correct : D. Greater sensitivity, resolution and attenuation
25. In immersion testing, verification that the search unit is normal to a flat entry surface
is indicated by:
Correct : A. Maximum reflection from the entry surface
26. Which of the following is true?
Correct : D. Wavelength=velocity/frequency
27. Most commercial ultrasonic testing is accomplished using frequencies between:
Correct : B. 0.2 and 25 MHz
28. The longitudinal wave incident angle which results in formation of a rayleigh wave is
called:
Correct : C. The second critical angle
29. An ultrasonic testing technique in which the transducer element is not parallel to the
test surface is called:
Correct : A. Angle beam testing
30. In the same material, shear wave velocity is:
Correct : A. Approximately 1/2 longitudinal wave velocity
31. Another name for a compression wave is a:
Correct : C. Longitudinal wave
32. Under most circumstances, which of the following frequencies would result in the
best resolving power?
Correct : D. 25 MHz
33. The most useful range of incident longitudinal wave angles for ultrasonic testing is:
Correct : A. Normal incidence to the first critical angle
34. Ultrasonic testing of material where the search unit is in direct contact with the
material being tested may be:
Correct : D. All of the above
35. The echo on the cathode ray tube (CRT) which represents the far boundary of the
material being tested is called:
Correct : D. The back wall echo
36. AA standard block which can be used to calibrate an instrument for an angle beam
range calibration is:
Correct : C. V1/A2 block
37. The ability to detect echos from small reflectors is called:
Correct : D. Sensitivity
38. When the motion of the particles of a medium is parallel to the direction of
propagation, the wave being transmitted is called a:
Correct : A. Longitudinal wave
39. In contact testing, the entry surface indication is sometimes referred to as:
Correct : C. Both (a) and (b)
40. A A second name for Rayleigh waves is:
Correct : D. Surface waves
41. Sound beam intensity decreases expontentially with distance in the area called:
Correct : B. The far field
42. AA test method employing two seperate search units on opposite surfaces of the
material being tested is called:
Correct : C. Through-transmission testing
43. Which of the following is not (!) a requirement of a couplant?
Correct : B. Highly penetrating
44. A A plan view representation of a test piece is produced by which of the following?
Correct : C. C scan
45. A A widening of the front surface indication, when testing a rough surface, is caused by:
Correct : C. A partial reflection of ultrasonic beam side lobe energy
46. When a vertical indication has reached the maximum signal height which can be displayed or viewed on the CRT of an ultrasonic instrument, the indication is said to have reached its:
Correct : C. Vertical level
47. AA material used between the face of a search unit and the test surface to permit or improve the transmission of ultrasonic vibrations from the search unit to the material being tested is called:
Correct : B. A couplant
48. When an ultrasonic beam passes through the interface between two dissimilar materials
at an angle, a new angle of sound travel is formed in the second material due to:
Correct : D. Refraction
49. The velocity of sound waves is primarily dependent on:
Correct : C. The material in which the sound is being transmitted and the mode of vibration
50. Piezoelectric ability is the property of a material to:
Correct : D. Produce an electric current when deformed and vice versa
51. The boundary between two different materials which are in contact with each other is
called:
Correct : C. An interface
52. An ultrasonic insrument control which is used to adjust the sharpness of the CRT
screen display is called:
Correct : A. Astigmatism or focus
53. A A disadvantage of using a low frequency ultrasonic transducer is:
Correct : D. It provides a larger beam angle and poorer resolving power
54. As transducer crystal thickness decreases:
Correct : C. Frequency increases
55. On the area-amplitude ultrasonic standard test blocks, the flat-bottomed holes in the
blocks are:
Correct : B. Different in diameter, increasing by 1/64 inch increments from the No. 1 block to the No. 8 block
56. A A disadvantage of using a low frequency ultrasonic transducer is:
Correct : C. It provides a smaller beam angle and poorer resolving power
57. A A disadvantage of using a high frequency ultrasonic transducer is:
Correct : C. It is scattered more by coarse grained material
58. When a longitudinal wave sound beam passes through an acoustic interface at some
angle other than zero degrees:
Correct : C. Reflection, refraction and mode conversion occur
59. The angle of a refracted shear wave generated as a sound wave passes at an angle
through an acoustic interface is depentant on:
Correct : A. The acoustic impedances of the materials on each side of the interface
60. The purpose of the couplant is to:
Correct : A. Match impedances between the transducer and test piece
61. When a sound beam is reflected:
Correct : B. The angle of reflection equals the angle of incidence
62. The ability to detect echoes from small reflectors is called:
Correct : D. Sensitivity
63. The ability to separate echoes from reflectors close together in depth is called:
Correct : A. Resolution
64. Which of the following transducer materials is the most efficient receiver of
ultrasonic energy?
Correct : C. Lithium sulfate
65. AA display which shows the initial pulse and the front surface echo superimposed
would be considered:
Correct : B. An A scan
66. AA display which shows the initial pulse and the front surface echo with a fairly wide
space between the two would be considered:
Correct : A. An immersion test
67. When conducting an immersion test, the water path distance must be controlled so
that:
Correct : C. The test piece discontinuity indications appear between the first front and first back surface echos
68. Bubblers and wheel transducers are considered:
Correct : B. Modified immersion techniques
69. Most commercial ultrasonic testing is performed at frequencies between:
Correct : D. 1 MHz and 25 MHz
70. For a transducer with any given Q, resolution increases with:
Correct : B. Frequency
71. Resolving power of a transducer is directly proportional to its:
Correct : C. Bandwidth
72. The term is used to refer to the product of wave velocity and density is:
Correct : A. Acoustic impedance
73. Snell's law is given by which of the following:
Correct : B. (Sin A)/(Sin B) = VA/VB
74. Snell's law is used to calculate:
Correct : C. Angle of refraction
75. Calculate the refracted shear wave angle in steel [VS = 0.323cm/microsec] for an
incident longitudinal wave of 37.9 degrees in Plexiglas [VL = 0.267cm/microsec]
Correct : B. 45 degrees
76. Calculate the refracted shear wave angle in steel [VS = 0.323cm/microsec] for an
incident longitudinal wave of 45.7 degrees in Plexiglas [VL = 0.267cm/microsec]
Correct : C. 60 degrees
77. Calculate the refracted shear wave angle in aluminium [VS = 0.31cm/microsec] for an
incident longitudinal wave of 43.5 degrees in Plexiglas [VL =0.267cm/microsec]
Correct : A. 53 degrees
78. Calculate the refracted shear wave angle in aluminium [VS = 0.31cm/microsec] for an
incident longitudinal wave of 53 degrees in Plexiglas [VL = 0.267cm/microsec]
Correct : D. 68 degrees
79. Lithium sulphate, barium titanate and lead metaniobate are examples of:
Correct : B. Piezoelectric elements
80. The particle motion for compression waves is:
Correct : A. Parallel to wave propagation
81. Shear waves for ultrasonic testing are usually produced:
Correct : B. Y cut crystals
82. Near surface resolution can be improved by:
Correct : B. Using a focused transducer
83. The most important requirement for paintbrush transducer is:
Correct : A. Uniform beam intensity across the transducer
84. Which of the following is an advantage of a focused transducer?
Correct : D. Higher resolution over a limited range
85. Which of the following is intended to be a ‘first cut’ or rough inspection device to be
followed by more precise evaluation of any discontinuities found?
Correct : C. Paintbrush transducer
86. A wider entry surface indication or pulse may result from:
Correct : A. Side lobes of the sound beam being reflected from a rough surface
87. Which of the following methods might be used to reduce attenuation losses in an
ultrasonic test?
Correct : B. Use a lower frequency transducer
88. When comparing discontinuity echoes to equivalent flat bottom hole echoes in
materials with similar impedance, surface finish and attenuation:
Correct : D. None of the above
89. An advantage of immersion testing is that:
Correct : C. High test frequencies may be used
90. An advantage of immersion testing is that:
Correct : D. Irregularly shaped test pieces can be virtually completely examined
91. An ultrasonic data display which shows a plan view presentation of the data is called:
Correct : C. C scan
92. An ultrasonic display which shows a cross section of the test piece and any flaws
which are found are called:
Correct : B. B scan
93. An ultrasonic display which shows echo locations and amplitude is called:
Correct : A. A scan
94. An advantage of using lower frequencies during ultrasonic testing is that:
Correct : D. Sensitivity to unfavourable oriented flaws is improved
95. A method of compensating for the ‘dead zone’ or near surface resolution problems is
to:
Correct : B. Re-inspect from the opposite side of the test piece if geometry permits
96. When testing a test piece with parallel front and back surfaces, no back wall echo can
be obtained. Which of the following actions might enable you to obtain a back wall echo?
Correct : B. Use a lower frequency transducer
97. Materials which can readily be inspected with frequencies of 1 to 5 MHz are:
Correct : C. Magnesium, titanium and steel
98. When variations are noticed in the front surface reflection, the test piece should be
inspected for possible near surface discontinuities by:
Correct : C. Inspecting from the opposite side
99. Forging bursts are most often orientated:
Correct : C. In a random manner
100. The purpose of adding a wetting agent to an immersion bath is: