1. Which one among the following pairs of level of government and legislative power is not correctly matched? [CDS 2011]
Correct : B. Local governments : Residuary powers
2. With reference to the Finance Commission of India, which of the following statements is correct? [CSAT 2011]
Correct : D. None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above is correct in this context
3. Which of the following Union Territories attained statehood in February, 1987 ?
Correct : A. Goa
4. The State of Bombay was bifurcated into Maharashtra and Gujarat on May 1, in the year:
Correct : D. 1960
5. What was the status of Sikkim at the commencement of the Constitution?
Correct : C. An independent kingdom attached to India by a special treaty
6. When did the first linguistic State of Andhra come into existence?
Correct : B. October 1, 1953
7. For those Union Territories, which have no Legislative Councils of their own, laws are passed by:
Correct : B. President, through the appointed Administrator
8. Which of the following does not give correctly the name of the original State out of whose territory the new State was created?
Correct : D. Goa from Maharashtra
9. The States Reorganisation Act created ______ States and _______ Union Territories.
Correct : B. 14;6
10. Which of the following were Union Territories before becoming States? 1. Himachal Pradesh 2. Manipur 3. Sikkim 4. Tripura
Correct : A. I, II and IV
11. The first general elections in India were held in:
Correct : C. 1951
12. The Congress lost its monopoly of power in the States for the first time after the
elections of:
Correct : A. 1967
13. The State Election Commission can be removed from office:
Correct : B. in the same manner and on the same grounds as a Judge of the Supreme Court
14. Electioneering has to stop in a constituency:
Correct : D. 48 hours before the closing hour of polling
15. Who is responsible for the registration of voters?
Correct : D. Election Commission
16. Who can cast their votes by postal ballot? 1. Members of the Armed Forces. 2. Officials on election duty. 3. Foreign Service personal when posted abroad.
Correct : D. I, II and III
17. A political party is recognised by the Election Commission only if: 1. it has been engaged in political activity for a continuous period of five years. 2. has returned at least one member of the Lok Sabha for every 2Smembers of that House or any fraction of that number elected from that State. 3. has polled not less than six percent of the total number of valid votes polled by all contesting candidates at the general elections. 4. has contested election in four or more States in three consecutive general elections.
Correct : C. I, II and III
18. What is the correct sequence of steps in electoral procedure? 1. Filing of nominations. 2. Presidential notification. 3. Scrutiny of nomination papers. 4. Withdrawal of candidature. 5. Allotment of symbols.
Correct : D. II, I, III, IV, V
19. Recognition to a political party is accorded by: [CDS 1992]
Correct : B. the Election Commission
20. Which one of the following statements is not correct? [CDS 2004]
Correct : B. In case of difference of opinion amongst the Chief Election Commissioner and other 'Election Commissioners, the matter is decided by the Law Commission
21. With reference to India, consider the following electoral systems: [CDS 2004] 1. System of direct election on the basis of adult suffrage. 2. System of proportional representation by means of single transferable vote. 3. List system of proportional representation. 4. Cumulative system of indirect representation. Which of these have been adopted for various elections in India?
Correct : A. 1 and 2
22. State funding of elections takes place in : [IAS 1997]
Correct : D. Germany and Austria
23. Consider the following tasks: [IAS 2004] 1) Superintendence, direction and conduct of free and fair elections. 2) Preparation of electoral rolls for all elections to the Parliament, State-Legislatures and the Office of the President and the Vice-President. 3) Giving recognition to political parties, allotting election symbols to political parties and individuals contesting the election. 4) Proclamation of final verdict in the case of election disputes. Which of the above are the functions of the Election Commission of India?
Correct : A. 1, 2 and 3
24. The conditions of service and tenure of the Election Commissioner is prescribed by:
Correct : B. Parliament
25. Who has the power to decide an election petition? I. District Court II. Supreme Court III. High Courts IV. Tribunals
Correct : D. II and III
26. A person is eligible to vote in the general elections if he or she: 1. is a citizen of India. 2. is not less than 21 years of age. 3. does not hold any office of profit under the Government. 4. is not disqualified on grounds of unsound mind.
Correct : B. I and IV
27. The Area of Lok Sabha Constituency for the purpose of general election is determined by the :
Correct : B. Election Commission
28. Which of the following is not correct?
Correct : B. The Election Commission conducts the elections to the Parliament, the State Legislatures, the offices of the President and Vice-President and all local bodies
29. The declaration which outlines the future programme and policy of a political party issued on the eve of a general election is called:
Correct : B. manifesto
30. The jurisdiction of the Finance Commission does not extend to:
Correct : C. recommendation of the allocation of funds among the various heads of expenditure in the Union and State budgets
31. The first Law Officer of the Government of India is:
Correct : C. Attorney General
32. Who is the highest Law Officer of a State?
Correct : B. Advocate General
33. Which of the following is not true regarding the Attorney General of India?
Correct : C. His consent is necessary for finalization of appointment of Judges to State High Courts
34. In the discharge of his functions, the Attorney General is assisted by :
Correct : B. two Solicitors-General and four Additional Solicitors-General
35. The Attorney General of India has the right to audience in :
Correct : D. any Court of law within the territory of India
36. Which of the following are true regarding the Attorney General of India?
1. He is the first Law Officer of the Government of India.
2. He has the right of audience in all Courts in India.
3. He has the right to speak and vote in the Houses of Parliament or any Parliamentary Committee.
4. He must have the same qualifications as are required to be a judge of the High Court.
Correct : A. I and II
37. The Attorney General of India holds office during the pleasure of the:
Correct : A. President
38. Which of the following is/are correct with regard to the office of Attorney General of India?
1. He is a member of the Cabinet.
2. He can speak in either House of Parliament and vote on any issue.
3. He must be qualified to become a Judge of the Supreme Court.
4. His remuneration is fixed by Parliament.
Correct : C. III only
39. The functions of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India include auditing and reporting on the receipts and expenditure of:
Correct : C. Union and State Governments
40. Term of Comptroller and Auditor General of India is: [CRPF 1990]
Correct : C. 6 years or 65 years of age whichever is earlier
41. State which of the following statements is incorrect?
Correct : D. No money by the Union and State Governments can be spent without prior approval of the Comptroller and Auditor General
42. Which of the following are true regarding the Comptroller and Auditor General of
India? 1. The office of the CAG has been created by the Constitution. 2. He holds office for a term of five years or till the age of 60 years, whichever is earlier. 3. He can be removed from office only by impeachment. 4. He has to audit and report on all expenditure from the Consolidated Fund of India and of each State and Union Territory having a Legislative Assembly and see whether expenditure has been in accordance with the law.
Correct : B. I, III and IV
43. The Comptroller and Auditor General can be removed from office:
Correct : B. in the same manner as that prescribed for the removal of a Supreme Court Judge
44. In case of which of the following, the method of removal from office is the same? 1. Judge of the Supreme Court. 2. Chief Election Commissioner. 3. President of India.
Correct : D. I, II and III
45. Which of the following political parties came into being before independence? 1. Communist Party of India (Marxist) 2. Communist Party of India 3. Dravida Munnetra Kazhagam 4. Bharatiya Janata Party
Correct : B. II only
46. Zonal Council are provided:
Correct : B. by Parliamentary Act
47. The Ex-officio Chairman of a Zonal Council is:
Correct : C. the Chief Minister of the State where the Council meets
48. The main purpose of Zonal Councils is to:
Correct : B. advise on matters of common interest to States in a Zone
49. An Inter-State Council was set up in 1990 under Article 263 of the Constitution by the:
Correct : A. President
50. The duties envisaged by the Constitution for the Inter-State Council are to : 1. inquire into and advise on disputes between States 2. investigate matters of common interest for two or more States 3. make recommendation for coordination of policy and action relating to any subject 4. enforce provisions relating to the freedom of trade and commerce
Correct : B. I, II and III
51. The members of the Inter-State Council are: 1. Six cabinet ministers nominated to it 2. Chief Ministers of all States 3. Secretaries of Union Ministries 4. Governors of all States
Correct : A. I and II
52. The Prime Minister, Union Cabinet Ministers, Chief Ministers and Council of Ministers are all members of :
Correct : B. National Development Council
53. National Development Council is :
Correct : B. non-political body
54. According to the National Human Rights Commission Act, 1993, who amongst the following can be its Chairman? [IAS 2004]
Correct : C. Only a retired Chief Justice of India
55. Which of the following is not true about the Lok Pal Bill ?
Correct : D. The Lok Pal is appointed by the Chief Justice of Supreme Court
56. Who among the following cannot be removed from office except in the manner
prescribed in the Constitution of India? [NDA 2005]
Correct : C. The Chief Election Commissioner
57. Consider the following statements:
1. The Attorney General of India can be a member of any Parliamentary Committee.
2. The Attorney General of India can take part in the proceedings of either House of Parliament.
3. To be appointed as the Attorney General of India, a person must be qualified to be appointed as a judge of the Supreme Court of India.
Which of the statements given above are correct? [NDA 2005]
Correct : D. 1, 2 and 3
58. Consider the following statements with respect to Attorney General of India:
1. He is appointed by the President.
2. He must have the same qualifications as are required by a Judge of High Court.
3. In the performance of his duties he shall have the right of audience in all courts of India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? [CDS 2009]
Correct : D. 1, 2 and 3
59. Consider the following statements: 1. The Chairman and the Members of the UPSC are appointed by the President. 2. The Chairman and the Members of the UPSC are eligible for further employment under the Government. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? [CDS 2008]
Correct : A. 1 only
60. The Chief Election Commissioner of India holds office for a period of [CDS 2011]
Correct : C. for six years or till the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier
61. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the commencement of the election process in India? [IAS 1995]
Correct : A. The recommendation for election is made by the government and the notification for election is issued by the Election Commission
62. Which of the following is not correct?
Correct : C. A person seeking election to a State Legislative Assembly must have completed the age of 21 years
63. Graduates constitute a separate constituency for the election of specified number of members to the: [Railway Apprentices 1993]
Correct : B. State Legislative Council
64. The Chief Election Commissioner, according to a recent judgement of the Supreme Court is : [CDS 1994]
Correct : B. to share his authority with members of the Election Commission
65. Election of Rajya Sabha is held after: [RRB 1991]
Correct : B. 2 years
66. Who is a Returning Officer? [Teachers' Exam 1993]
Correct : D. An officer who is responsible for conduct of election in a constituency and declares results
67. Which of the following is not true about the electoral functions of the Parliament? [SBI PO 1991]
Correct : A. It helps the Prime Minister in forming the Central Cabinet
68. The powers of the Election Commission are given in which of the following Articles of
the Constitution?
Correct : C. 324
69. Which of the following does not come under the purview of the Election Commission?
Correct : A. To conduct the election of PM of India
70. The Electorate means:
Correct : B. all the citizens who possess the right to vote and elect their representatives in an election
71. How many days-time is given for the candidates to file their nominations from the date
of notification of the election?
Correct : D. 8 Clays
72. The Chief Election Commissioner can be removed:
Correct : A. by each House of Parliament by a special majority and on the ground of proven misbehaviour or incapacity
73. Which of the following activities indulged in by a candidate during an election campaign constitute corrupt practices? 1. Giving gifts to voters to induce them to vote. 2. Appealing for votes on the grounds of caste or religion. 3. False character assassination of other candidates. 4. Propagation and glorification of Sati.
Correct : D. I, II, III and IV
74. Which of the following is correct regarding booth capturing? 1. It has been defined in the Constitution after the 61st amendment. 2. It includes the seizure of a polling booth to prevent the orderly conduct of elections. 3. It is also committed when any elector is threatened and prevented from going to the polling station to cast his vote. 4. It has been declared a cognizable offence punishable by imprisonment.
Correct : A. 2, 3, and 4
75. Who appoints the Chief Election Commissioner of India? [CRPF 1990]
Correct : A. President
76. The Election Commission does not conduct the elections to the:
Correct : C. Local bodies
77. The Election Commission holds election for: [NDA 1994]
Correct : D. the Parliament, State Legislatures and the posts of the President and the Vice-President
78. The control of the preparation of electoral rolls for Parliament and legislatures vests
with the: [CBI 1993]
Correct : D. Election Commission
79. Members of the Union Public Service Commission can function as members up to the
age of: [I. Tax 1989]
Correct : D. 65 years
80. The Chairman and members of State Public Service Commission are appointed by the:
Correct : A. President
81. Who appoints the Chairman of the UPSC?
Correct : A. President
82. Which of the following is an extra Constitutional and non-statutory body?
Correct : C. Planning Commission
83. Which one of the following is not a function of UPSC?
Correct : D. It shall be consulted as regards the reservation of posts for backward classes, scheduled castes and tribes
84. UPSC submits its annual report on its work to:
Correct : B. the Union Home Minister
85. The members of UPSC hold the office:
Correct : D. for the term of six years or till they attain the age of 65 years
86. The members of All-India Services are appointed under the signature of:
Correct : A. President
87. The members of UPSC can be removed from the office before the expiry of the term by
the :
Correct : C. President on recommendation of Supreme Court
88. There port of the UPSC:
Correct : C. has to be discussed in Parliament before being accepted
89. The members of a State Commission can be removed by the:
Correct : C. President on a report by the Supreme Court
90. The resignation letter of a State Public Service Commission member is addressed to the :
Correct : B. Governor
91. The UPSC conducts examinations for: 1. Central Services. 2. All India Services. 3. State Services. 4. State Services for two or more States jointly.
Correct : D. I and II
92. The composition of the UPSC is:
Correct : C. determined by the President
93. The Chairman of the Finance Commission must be:
Correct : C. a person having experience in public affairs
94. Finance Commission consists of:
Correct : D. a Chairman and three other members
95. Finance Commission is constituted by the President every :
Correct : C. five years
96. The Centre-State financial distribution takes place on the recommendation by the:
Correct : A. Finance Minister
97. The source of maximum income to Panchayati Raj institution is: [CDS 1993]
Correct : C. government grants
98. Which is at the apex of the three tier system of Panchayati Raj?
Correct : C. Zila Parishad
99. Panchayati Raj has received constitutional status with the Amendment Act :
Correct : B. 73rd
100. The list of items which may be entrusted to the Panchayats is given in the: