1. Which of the following is not an essential qualification for appointment as a Governor ?
Correct : B. He should be a domicile of the State to which he is being appointed
2. The first woman Governor of a State in free India was
Correct : A. Mrs. Sarojini Naidu
3. When the Governor receives a Bill passed by the State Legislative Assembly, which of the following courses would be most appropriate for the Governor as an agent of the Centre?
Correct : B. refer the Bill to the President
4. What is the maximum number of elected members in a State Assembly? [UDC 1993]
Correct : D. 500
5. The members of the State Legislative Assembly are elected for what period?
Correct : D. 5 years
6. One feature distinguishing the Rajya Sabha from the Vidhan Parlshad is :
Correct : D. indirect election
7. 1/12th of the members of the Vidhan Parishad are to be elected:
Correct : C. from the graduates of any university in any State of India, who have been residing in the State and who have been graduate of at least three years standing
8. To be a member of a State Council of Ministers, a person :
Correct : B. must acquire membership of the State legislature within six months of such appointment if he is not one already
9. A minister in a State is individually responsible to the:
Correct : B. Governor
10. The Vidhan Sabha is :
Correct : C. subject to dissolution
11. The Legislative Council of a State: I. is not subject to dissolution. II. can be abolished by the State Legislative Assembly. III. can be abolished by the President on the Governor's recommendation.
Correct : C. I and II
12. What do you understand by the dual role of the Governor?
Correct : D. Constitutional ruler and an agent of the Centre
13. The Contingency Fund of the State is operated by the:
Correct : C. Governor
14. The States in India can borrow from the market:
Correct : C. only with the consent of the Centre
15. If the Governor of a State is appointed administrator of an adjoining Union Territory,
he exercises his functions:
Correct : B. independently of his Council of Ministers
16. Grants-in-aid given to States are meant:
Correct : C. to cover gaps on revenue account so that States can undertake beneficial activities
17. Membership of the legislative Assembly can vary between 60 and 500, but the exception to this rule is/are found in : I. Puducherry II. Mizoram III. Goa
Correct : D. I, II and III
18. Money Bills can be introduced in the State legislature with the prior consent of the:
Correct : B. Governor
19. The Central Government can assign any function to the States:
Correct : D. with the consent of the State Government
20. The State legislative Assembly participates in the election of: 1. President 2. Vice-President 3. Rajya Sabha members 4. Members of legislative Council of the State
Correct : B. I, III and IV
21. While appointing a Governor, the President generally consults the Chief Minister of the
State. This is :
Correct : B. a matter of convention
22. The Chairman of the legislative Council is:
Correct : C. elected by the members of the legislative Council from among themselves
23. The limitations on the authority of the State Legislature do not include:
Correct : C. the Governor's discretionary power to dissolve the legislature
24. Consider the given statements and choose the correct response on them. 1. A person can be appointed as Governor of more than one State. 2. A Governor's salary is charged on the Consolidated Fund of India in case of I. 3. In case of I, the Governor's salary is shared by the concerned States. 4. In case of I, the Governor's salary is paid by the State named by the President.
Correct : C. I and III are correct
25. On which of the following matters can a Governor of a State exercise his discretionary powers? 1. Selection of Chief Minister if no political party gets a clear-cut majority. 2. Dismissal of a Ministry if he is convinced that it has lost majority support. 3. Salaries and allowances of ministers. 4. Submission of report to President regarding failure of constitutional machinery in the State.
Correct : C. I, II and IV
26. Which of the following are true about Legislative Council of a State?
1. Its total number of members does not exceed two-thirds of total number of members in the Legislative Assembly of that State but is not less than 40.
2. One-third of its members are elected by the Legislative Assembly, one-third by local bodies, one-twelfth by teachers, one-twelfth by university graduates and one-sixth nominated by the Governor.
3. It cannot be dissolved.
4. One-third of its members retire every year.
Correct : B. II and III
27. Consider the following statements: The Constitution of India provides that: 1. the Legislative Assembly of each State shall consist of not more than 450 members chosen by direct election from territorial constituencies in the State. 2. a person shall not be qualified to be chosen to fill a seat in the Legislative Assembly of a State if he/she is less than 25 years of age. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? [IAS 2008]
Correct : B. 2 only
28. There is no reservation for the Scheduled Tribes in the Legislative Assemblies of:
Correct : A. Punjab, Gujarat and Himachal Pradesh
29. Who acts as the Chancellor of State Universities ?
Correct : A. Governor
30. Which of these States has the Bicameral Legislature? 1. Bihar 2. Gujarat 3. Karnataka 4. Jammu & Kashmir 5. Maharashtra 6. U.P.
Correct : B. 1, 3, 4, 5, 6
31. Which of these States previously had Legislative Councils? 1. Andhra Pradesh 2. Gujarat 3. Kerala 4. Manipur 5. West Bengal 6. Tamil Nadu
Correct : D. only 6
32. With respect to Article 371A of the Constitution of India, the Governor of which one of the following States has special responsibility with respect to law and order of the State? [CDS 2008]
Correct : C. Nagaland
33. Consider the following statements: 1. In India, only the President, but not the Governors of the States, has the power to pardon, commute or suspend the sentence of any person convicted of any offence. 2. In India, though the Governor of a State is its constitutional head during normal times, he acts as the agent of the Centre during periods of Emergency in the State. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? [NDA 2005]
Correct : B. 2 only
34. Which of the following statements is/are correct? Under the provisions of Article 200 of the Constitution of India the Governor of a state may 1. withhold his assent to a Bill passed by the state legislature. 2. reserve the Bill passed by the state legislature for consideration of the President. 3. return the Bill, other than a money Bill for reconsideration-of the legislature. Select the correct answer using the code given below: [CDS 2011]
Correct : D. 1, 2 and 3
35. Regarding the enactment of an ordinary law, the State Legislative Council:
Correct : B. may delay it for a maximum period of four months
36. A: The position of the legislative Council is inferior to that of the legislative Assembly. R1: The very existence of the Council depends on the will of the Assembly. R2: A Bill originating in the Council can be forthwith put to an end by the Assembly rejecting it. R3: One-sixth of the Council's members are nominated by the Governor.
Correct : C. A, R1, R2and R3are correct but only R1 and R2 explain A
37. The Governor does not appoint:
Correct : A. Judges of the High Court
38. Point out the powers enjoyed by the President of India but not available to the Governor. 1. Diplomatic Powers. 2. Pardoning death sentence. 3. Veto power over State legislature. 4. Military powers.
Correct : D. I,II and IV
39. The ordinances issued by the Governor are subject to approval by:
Correct : B. State legislature
40. Grants-in-aid are provided every year to such States as are in need of assistanceas
determined by the:
Correct : C. Finance Commission
41. Which of the following is in the Concurrent List in the Constitution of India? [IAS 1993]
Correct : A. Population control and family planning
42. Which subject was transferred from State List to Concurrent List by the 42nd
amendment of the Constitution? [Teachers' Exam 1993]
Correct : B. Education
43. Goa
4. Mizoram
Correct : C. I, II, IV, III
44. In India both direct and indirect taxes are levied by the Central and State Government. Which of the following is levied by the State Governments? [Railway Apprentices' Exam 1993]
Correct : A. Excise Duty on liquor
45. The largest contribution to the total combined annual tax revenue of the Centre States and Union Territories in India is made by : [SBI PO 1990]
Correct : D. Union Excise duties
46. Corporation Tax: [IAS 1995]
Correct : B. is levied by the Union and belongs to it exclusively
47. Agricultural Income Tax is assigned to the State Governments by: [IAS 1995]
Correct : A. the Constitution of India
48. The authority empowered to make laws in respect of matters not enumerated in any of
three lists is/are:
Correct : B. Union Parliament
49. Both Union and State Legislature can legislate on :
Correct : D. All of the above
50. The Central Government's exclusive powers are enumerated in the:
Correct : C. Union List
51. Under the Constitution, the residuary powers vest with the: [Delhi Police 1994]
Correct : C. Union Government
52. The executive power relating to concurrent subjects remain with:
Correct : B. the Centre
53. The Union list contains:
Correct : B. 97 subjects
54. The State List contains:
Correct : C. 66 subjects
55. The Concurrent List contains:
Correct : A. 47 subjects
56. Which Articles of Indian Constitution discuss the financial relations between the Centre
and the States?
Correct : A. Articles 268 to 281
57. A change in distribution of powers between the Centre and the States can be done by:
Correct : C. amending the Constitution
58. The distribution of power between Centre and the States is based on the scheme provided in :
Correct : C. Government of India Act, 1935
59. Union Parliament has the power to legislate on the subjects of all three lists in respect
of:
Correct : D. Union Territories
60. When can a State law on a subject in the Concurrent List get precedence over a Central law on the same subject :
Correct : C. if it had got the President's assent before the enactment of the Central law
61. The provisions regarding division of taxes between Union and the States:
Correct : C. can be suspended only with the consent of the majority of State legislatures
62. What can the President do if the States fail to comply with the directives of Central Government:
Correct : C. He can declare the breakdown of constitutional machinery in the State and assume responsibility for the governance of the State
63. In the case of a conflict between the Centre and a State in respect of a subject included
in the Concurrent List:
Correct : B. the Union Law prevails
64. The idea of incorporation of the Concurrent List in the Indian Constitution has been borrowed from the Constitution of:
Correct : C. Australia
65. In which respect have the Centre-State relations been specifically termed as 'municipal relations' ? [IAS 1994]
Correct : D. Centre's control of the State in planning process
66. Which of the following is/are extra constitutional and extra-legal device (s)for securing
co-operation and co-ordination between the States in India? [IAS 1995] 1. The National Development Council. 2. The Governor's Conference. 3. Zonal Councils. 4. The Inter-State Council
Correct : B. I, III and IV
67. Jammu and Kashmir has a Constitution framed by:
Correct : C. a Constituent Assembly set up by the State
68. The residuary powers of legislation in case of Jammu and Kashmir belong to :
Correct : B. the State Legislature
69. An amendment of the Constitution of India can extend to Jammu and Kashmir:
Correct : C. by an order of the President under Article 370
70. A proclamation of Emergency by the President:
Correct : B. shall have effect in Jammu and Kashmir only on the concurrence of the State Legislature
71. When can Parliament legislate on a subject in the State List? 1. If Lok Sabha passes a 'resolution by two-thirds majority that it is in national interest to do so. 2. When the legislatures of two or more States request Parliament to legislate on a State subject. 3. Under a proclamation of Emergency.
Correct : B. II and III
72. The Central Government can issue directions to the States with regard to the: 1. Union List 2. State List 3. Concurrent List
Correct : D. I, II and III
73. The Union Territories are administered by the:
Correct : C. President, through administrators appointed by him
74. With reference to the Constitution of India, which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched? [IAS 2004]
Correct : B. Stock Exchanges : Concurrent List
75. Which of the following is/are correctly matched? 1. Stamp duties and duties on medical and toilet preparations-levied by the Union but collected and appropriated by the States. 2. Duties on succession to property other " than agricultural land-levied and' collected by the Union but assignedto the States. 3. Taxes on income other than corporation tax and tax on agricultural income-levied. collected and appropriated by the Union. 4. Receipts from Broadcasting-non- tax revenue of the Union.
Correct : D. I, II and IV
76. Which of the following matters are not included in the Union List? I. Defence II. Prisons III. Liquor policy IV. Ports V. Irrigation
Correct : D. II, III and V
77. The State can legislate on subjects in the: 1. State List 2. Union List 3. Concurrent List 4. Residuary List
Correct : D. 1 and 3
78. Which of the following is not in the State List under the Constitution of India?
Correct : C. Insurance
79. Railways is a subject on the: [Teachers' Exam 1994]
Correct : B. Union List
80. Which of the following is regarded as an essential function of the State ? [Central Excise 1994]
Correct : B. To provide defence against external attacks
81. Which of the following taxes is exclusively and totally assigned to the Central Government by the Constitution [CDS 1992]
Correct : D. Taxes on Railway fares and freight
82. Which of the following is not included in the State List in the Constitution of India?
Correct : D. Criminal Procedure Code
83. Which of the following items comes under the Concurrent List?
Correct : B. Trade Unions
84. The first State to become bifurcated after independence was:
Correct : A. Madras
85. When was the Madras State renamed Tamil Nadu?
Correct : A. 1969
86. Which of the following did India acquire from France?
Correct : D. All of these
87. Which one of the following is not administered by a Lieutenant Governor?
Correct : C. Chandigarh
88. The old name of which State/Union Territory is wrongly given?
Correct : D. Meghalaya - Eastern Hill Province
89. Which of the following States and the year of their creation is incorrectly matched?
Correct : A. Andhra Pradesh : 1956
90. The Sarkaria Commission dealing with the Centre-State .relationship has not laid down which of the following regarding the appointment of Governors?
Correct : C. He should have travelled extensively in and out of India
91. English is the official language of which of the following States? [Railways 1995; MBA
1994]
Correct : B. Nagaland
92. Which one of the following was an associate State of India before becoming a full
fledged State? [CDS 1992]
Correct : C. Sikkim
93. Which of the following features is/are contrary to the norms of a federal polity? 1. Common All India Service 2. Single integrated judiciary Select the correct answer using the code given below: [CDS 2011]
Correct : C. Both 1 and 2
94. A special category State invariably [CDS 2011]
Correct : D. has poor infrastructure
95. The vesting of 'residuary' powers in the central government by the Constitution of India indicates [Asstt Commdt 2010]
Correct : C. that India is quasi federal
96. Who of the following shall cause every recommendation made by the Finance
Commission to be laid before each House of Parliament? [IAS 2010]
Correct : A. The President of India
97. In the Constitution of India, the word 'Federal' is used in [Asstt Commdt 2011]
Correct : D. Nowhere
98. Which of the following statements with regard to the Federal System' is/are correct? 1. In a federation, two sets of governments co-exist and there is distribution of power. 2. There is a written constitution. Select the correct answer using the code given below: [NDA 2011]
Correct : A. 1 only
99. Which one among the following pairs is not correctly matched? [NDA 2011]
Correct : D. Residuary List : Education
100. In which one of the following cases the Supreme Court of India gave verdicts which have a direct bearing on the Centre-State relations? [CDS 2011]