Quiznetik

Indian Polity and Constitution (GK) | Set 16

1. Judicial Review in the Indian Constitution is based on which of the following?

Correct : C. Procedure established by law

2. The Provisions concerning the powers of the Union judiciary in he constitution can be amended by -

Correct : C. Two-third majority of the Parliament and the majority of states

3. In India who is the executive head of the state?

Correct : B. The President

4. In India, the Prime Minister remains in office so long as he enjoys the -

Correct : C. Confidence of Lok Sabha

5. Which of the following Fundamental Rights includes the Right to Education?

Correct : B. Right to Freedom

6. The state possesses –

Correct : C. both internal and external sovereignty

7. India is a republic because —

Correct : C. the head of the state is elected for a definite period

8. The provisional President of the Constituent Assembly was –

Correct : A. Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha

9. Which one of the following is not the technique of the balance of power?

Correct : C. Methods of persuasion

10. Who is custodian of the Indian Constitution?

Correct : B. Chief Justice of India

11. Which one of the following is not a department in the Ministry of Human, Resource Development?

Correct : D. Department of women and child development

12. Who decides the office of profit?

Correct : A. President and Governor

13. The vacancy of the office of the President of India must be filled up within-

Correct : B. 6 months

14. By which of the following can the President of India be impeached?

Correct : B. The Parliament

15. The Union Executive of India consists of:

Correct : D. The President, Vice-President and the Council of Ministers only

16. Article 30 of the Indian Constitution deals with the -

Correct : C. Right of minorities to establish and manage educational institution

17. How is legislative excess of Parliament and State Assemblies checked?

Correct : C. Judicial review

18. Which of the following is not guaranteed by Indian Constitution?

Correct : D. Right to free education for an

19. Justice is essentially a -

Correct : D. Complex concept combining all the above concepts

20. What is the objective advocated for appointment of the National Judicial Commission?

Correct : C. Bringing about transparency and impartiality in the appointment of judges of the highest level.

21. How can the number of judges in the Supreme Court in India be increased?

Correct : B. By amendment of the Constitution

22. The Constitution allows preventive detention but stipulates:

Correct : A. that no one should be detained beyond three months unless an Advisory Board authorizes detention beyond that period

23. How many members of the Rajya Sabha are nominated by the President?

Correct : B. Twelve

24. Which is not an All India Service?

Correct : C. Indian Foreign Service

25. Which one of the following is an item included in the list of Fundamental Duties of an Indian citizen inthe Constitution?

Correct : B. To develop scientific temper, humanism and the spirit of enquiry and reform.

26. When the offices of both the President and Vice President of India are vacant, who will discharge their functions?

Correct : C. Chief Justice of India

27. Who is eligible to cast the deciding vote over a bill in a Joint Parliamentary session?

Correct : C. Speaker of Lok Sabha

28. Representation of any state in Rajya Sabha is according to –

Correct : B. population of the state

29. The most important feature of the Indian Parliament is that –

Correct : D. the Upper House of the Parliament is never dissolved

30. According to the Supreme Court of India, the foundation of composite culture', as mentioned in clause (f) of Article 51 A, is :

Correct : B. the Sanskrit language and literature

31. The Supreme Court has held that hoisting the National flag atop the private buildings is a fundamental right of every citizen under -

Correct : B. Article 19(1) (1) of the Constitution

32. Who presides over the joint sitting of the Parliament in India?

Correct : C. The Speaker, Lok Sabha

33. The Speaker of Lok Sabha is elected by –

Correct : A. all the members of Parliament

34. Under the provisions of the Constitution of India, who is entitled to be consulted by the President of India in the matter of the appointments of the Judges of the High Court?

Correct : D. The Governor

35. Who has the authority to appoint a judge of a High Court?

Correct : B. The president of India

36. The philosophical foundation of the Indian constitution is -

Correct : D. Preamble

37. Who is the chief advisor to the Governor?

Correct : B. Chief Minister

38. Money Bill can be introduced in the State Legislative Assembly with the prior permission of the –

Correct : A. Governor of the State

39. Which one of the following is incorrect in respect of Local Government in India?

Correct : B. 30% of the seats in local bodies are reserved for women

40. In the new Panchayati Raj Bill enacted in 1993, there are several fresh provisions deviating from the past. Which one of the following is not one such provisions?

Correct : D. Regular remuneration to the panchayat members, so as to ensure their punctuality and accountability

41. Elections to the House of the People and the Legislative Assemblies of States in India are held on the basis of :

Correct : D. adult franchise

42. The National Development Council includes :

Correct : B. Chief Ministers of all the States

43. An electoral system under which a legislature reflects the strength of the various political parties is called –

Correct : A. Proportional representation

44. Which are the two States (other than UP) having the highest representation in Lok Sabha?

Correct : B. Bihar and Maharashtra

45. The 'Narmada Water Dispute Tribunal' was constituted to resolve the water sharing between –

Correct : C. Gujarat, Maharashtra, Rajasthan and Madhya Pradesh

46. Who is authorised to transfer the Judge of one High Court to another High Court?

Correct : A. The President

47. The civil affairs like marriage, divorce, inheritance etc. which has been authorised by the Constitution to make legal laws?

Correct : C. Centre and States, by the Concurrent List of the Constitution

48. The Chief Election Commissioner of India holds office for a period of -

Correct : C. for 6 years or till the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier

49. Delimitation of constituencies and determination of constituencies reserved for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes are done by -

Correct : B. Delimitation Commission

50. The power to decide the date of an election to a State Legislative Assembly rests with the -

Correct : C. Election Commission of India

51. Article 14 of the Indian Constitution guarantees Indian citizens –

Correct : D. Equality before law and equal protection of the laws

52. 52nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1985 deals with –

Correct : B. Defection and disqualification

53. Which amendments to the Constitution provide for the reservation of one-third seats in the Municipal Boards and Village Panchayats for women?

Correct : A. 73rd and 74th Amendments

54. With reference to the conduct of government business in the Parliament of India, the term 'closure' refers to -

Correct : A. suspension of debate at the terminatan of a day's sitting of the Parliament

55. With regard to the powers of the Rajya Sabha, which one among the following statements is not correct?

Correct : C. The Rajya Sabha cannot discuss the Annual Financial Statement

56. Which factor is necessary for the development of democratic institutions?

Correct : B. Respect for individual rights

57. The National Green Tribunal deals with cases relating to :

Correct : D. Environmental protection and conservation of forests.

58. This political party was first derecognized and later on again recognized as a National Party by the Election Commssion of India –

Correct : B. Communist Party of India -- Marxist

59. By which constitutional amendment political defections were banned?

Correct : D. The Fifty-second amendment of 1985

60. The system of privy purses in respect of former rulers of Indian States before Independence was abolished by the Constitution through –

Correct : A. 26th Amendment Act, 1971

61. Which Article of the Indian Constitution includes the Fundamental Duties of the Indian citizens?

Correct : C. Article 51A

62. The 3-tier of the Panchayati Raj System consists of –

Correct : D. Gram Sabha, Panchayat Samiti, Zilla Parishad

63. Why did one of the High Courts in India decree that "bandhs are unconstitutional and punitive"?

Correct : B. It is not in exercise of a fundamental freedom

64. Article 370 of t he Constitution of India provides for –

Correct : A. temporary provisions for Jammu & Kashmir

65. The Chief Election Commissioner of India holds office –

Correct : C. for six years or till the age of 65 whichever is earlier

66. Vote-on-account means –

Correct : D. Statutory acceptance of expenditure related to demands of grants till the passage of planning bill

67. What is the period of appointment of the Comptroller and Auditor - General of India?

Correct : C. 6 years or 65 years of age whichever is earlier

68. Which one of the following is not correct about the Panchayats as laid down in Part IX of the Constitution of India?

Correct : C. Unless dissolved earlier, every Panchayat continues for a period of five years.

69. Which of the following is not correctly matched under the Constitution of India?

Correct : D. Tribunals Part X

70. The Electoral College that elects the President of India consists of –

Correct : C. Elected members of the Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha and State Assemblies

71. The Supreme Courts of India enjoys -

Correct : B. Original, appellate and advisory jurisdiction

72. If the election of the President of India is declared void by the Supreme Court, the acts performed by President Incumbent before the date of such decision of court remain -

Correct : A. Valid

73. The main advantage of the parliamentary form of government is that

Correct : C. the executive remains responsible to the legislature.

74. What is the chief source of political power in India?

Correct : A. The people

75. Chief Ministers of States are members of

Correct : C. National Development Council

76. The citizens of India do not have which one of the following Fundamental Rights?

Correct : B. Right to acquire, hold and dispose of property

77. The Constitution of India guarantees the Fundamental Right to Freedom of Religion to all its citizens. Which among the following is not true for this Rights?

Correct : D. The State cannot make any law which abrogates this Right for citizens

78. While deciding any question relating the disqualification of a member of Parliament, the President shall obtain the opinion of

Correct : B. Election Commission of India

79. When does Lok Sabha or a Vidhan Sabha election candidate forfeit his security deposit?

Correct : D. When he fails to secure even 1/6 of total votes polled

80. The term of office of the member of the UPSC is –

Correct : C. 6 years, or till they attain 65 years of age

81. In the context of India, which one of the following is the correct relationship between Rights and Duties?

Correct : A. Rights are correlative with Duties.

82. Right to Privacy is protected as an intrinsic part of Right to Life and Personal Liberty. Which of the following in the Constitution of India correctly and appropriately imply the above statement?

Correct : C. Article 21 and the freedoms guaranteed in Part. III

83. Right to privacy as a Fundamental Right is implied in -

Correct : B. Right to Life and Personal Liberty

84. The Comptroller and Auditor General is closely connected with which of the following Committees of Parliament?

Correct : C. The Public Accounts Committee

85. Which among the following functions as a coordinate between the Planning Commission and State Governments?

Correct : C. National Development Council

86. An amendment of the constitution may be initiated             .

Correct : D. by the introduction of a bill in either House of Parliament.

87. Who decides whether a Bill is a money Bill or not?

Correct : A. Speaker of the Lok Sabha

88. In order to be recognised as an official opposition group in the Parliament-

Correct : D. 1/10th of the total strength

89. Rajya Sabha enjoys more power than the Lok Sabha in the case of -

Correct : C. Setting up of new All India Services

90. The speaker of the Lok Sabha can resign his office by addressing his resignation to -

Correct : C. The Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha

91. Being the non-member, who among the following can participate in the proceedings of either house of the Parliament without having right to vote?

Correct : D. Attorney General

92. Which of the following freedoms is not specifically mentioned in the Constitution of India as a Fundamental Right but has been subsequently upheld by the Supreme Court as such?

Correct : D. Freedom of the press

93. Which one of the following categories of persons is not treated at par so far as the availability of Fundamental Rights is concerned?

Correct : A. Members of the armed forces

94. Lok Sabha Secretariat comes under the direct control of –

Correct : C. Speaker of Lok Sabha

95. Who decides disputes regarding disqualification of members of Parliament?

Correct : D. The President in. Consultation with the Election Commission

96. In the case of deadlock between the two houses paraliament, the joint sitting is presided over by the:

Correct : C. Speaker of Lok Sabha

97. If the Prime Minister of India submits his resignation to the President, it will mean the resignation of the –

Correct : C. Entire Council of Ministers

98. Who will administer the oath of office to the person who is to take over as President?

Correct : B. The Chief Justice of India

99. The Right to Information Act, 2005 makes the provision of [UGC June 2010]

Correct : A. Dissemination of all types of information by all Public authorities to any person.

100. The majority of the provisions of the Indian Constitution can be amended–

Correct : B. by the Parliament alone