Quiznetik
Indian Polity and Constitution (GK) | Set 14
1. What does the "Judicial Review" function of the Supreme Court mean?
A. Review its own judgement
B. Review the functioning of judiciary in the country
C. Examine the constitutional validity of the laws
D. Undertake periodic review of the Constitution
Correct : C. Examine the constitutional validity of the laws
2. Which statement is true in relation to the Protection of Human Rights Act?
A. The Act came into force on 23rd September, 1993
B. The Act came into force on 28th September, 1993
C. The Act came into force on 23rd September, 1995
D. The Act came into force on 28th September, 1995
Correct : B. The Act came into force on 28th September, 1993
3. Who is not the ex officio member of the National Human Rights Commission?
A. The Chairperson of the National Commission for Minorities.
B. The Chairperson of the Law Commission of India
C. The Chairperson of the National commission for the scheduled. Castes and Scheduled Tribes
D. The Chairperson of the National Commission for Women
Correct : B. The Chairperson of the Law Commission of India
4. Electoral disputes arising out of Presidential and Vice-Presidential Elections are settled by -
A. Election Commission of India
B. Joint Committee of Parliament
C. Supreme Court of India
D. Central Election Tribunal
Correct : C. Supreme Court of India
5. Panchayati Raj System was implemented first in the pair of states –
A. Andhra Pradesh and Rajasthan
B. Assam and Bihar
C. Arunachal Pradesh and Uttar Pradesh
D. Punjab and Chandigarh
Correct : A. Andhra Pradesh and Rajasthan
6. What is the system of Local Self Government in the Panchayati Raj set up?
A. Four tier system at the village, block, district and State level
B. Three tier structure at village, block and district level
C. Two tier system at village and block level
D. Single tier set up at village level
Correct : B. Three tier structure at village, block and district level
7. Which one among the following statements is correct? The press in democracy must -
A. be free and impartial
B. be committed to the policies of the government
C. highlight the achievement of the government without criticizing its policies
D. criticize the policies of the government
Correct : A. be free and impartial
8. The Indian parliamentary system is different from the British Parliamentary system in that India has?
A. Both a real and a nominal executive
B. A system of collective responsibility
C. Bicameral legislature
D. The system of judicial review
Correct : D. The system of judicial review
9. The Parliament can make any law for the whole or any part of India for implementing international treaties?
A. With the consent of all the states
B. With the consent of majority of states
C. With the consent of state concerned
D. Without the consent of any state
Correct : D. Without the consent of any state
10. In what way does the Indian Parliament exercise control over the administration?
A. Through Parliamentary Committee
B. Through Consultative Committee of various ministers
C. By making the administration send periodic reports
D. By compelling the executives to issue writs
Correct : A. Through Parliamentary Committee
11. Which of the following is not correct?
A. A person seeking election to the Rajya Sabha must have completed the age of 30 years
B. A person seeking election to the Lok Sabha must have completed the age of 25 years
C. A person seeking election to a State Legislative Assembly must have completed the age of 21 years
D. A person eligible to vote for election to a village panchayat must have completed the age of 18 years
Correct : C. A person seeking election to a State Legislative Assembly must have completed the age of 21 years
12. Which one among the following statements is correct? The press in democracy must
A. be free and impartial
B. be committed to the policies of the government
C. highlight the achievement of the government without criticizing its policies
D. Criticize the policies of the government
Correct : A. be free and impartial
13. Vote on Account is meant for -
A. Vote on the report of CAG
B. To meet unforeseen expenditure
C. Appropriating funds pending due to passing of budget Budget
D. None of the above
Correct : C. Appropriating funds pending due to passing of budget Budget
14. Who amongst the following is not entitled to take part in the activities of Lok Sabha?
A. The Comptroller and Auditor General of India
B. The Attorney General of India
C. The Solicitor General
D. The Secretary to President of India.
Correct : D. The Secretary to President of India.
15. In the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution of India, which languages were added subsequently?
A. English, Sindhi, Marathi, Sanskrit
B. Sanskrit, Sindhi, Konkani, Manipuri
C. Sincihi, Konkani, Manipur, Nepali
D. Marathi, Orlya, Konkani, Nepali
Correct : C. Sincihi, Konkani, Manipur, Nepali
16. Division of Powers and Independent Judiciary are the two important features of –
A. Socialist form of Government
B. Unitary form of Government
C. Democratic form of Government
D. Federal form of Government
Correct : C. Democratic form of Government
17. The Supreme Court of India enjoys –
A. original jurisdictions
B. advisory jurisdictions
C. appellate and advisory Jurisdictions
D. original, appellate and advisory jurisdictions.
Correct : D. original, appellate and advisory jurisdictions.
18. The States reorganization in 1956 created –
A. 17 States and 6 Union Territories
B. 17 States and 9 Union Territories
C. 14 States and 6 Union Territones
D. 15 States and 9 Union Territories
Correct : C. 14 States and 6 Union Territones
19. Who was the first Vice-Chairman of the NITI Ayog?
A. Arvind Panagariya
B. Raghuram Rajan
C. Chandrashekhara Subramanyam
D. Rajiv Kumar
Correct : A. Arvind Panagariya
20. Which of the following is an extra- constitutional agency?
A. Union Public Service Commission
B. Finance Commission
C. Election Commission
D. NITI Ayog
Correct : D. NITI Ayog
21. Local self-government can be best explained as an exercise in -
A. Federalism
B. Democratic decentralization
C. Administrative delegation
D. Direct democracy
Correct : B. Democratic decentralization
22. The Bureaucracy performs –
A. only administrative functions
B. only judicial functions
C. only legislative functions
D. administrative as well as quasi-judicial and quasilegislative functions
Correct : D. administrative as well as quasi-judicial and quasilegislative functions
23. A British citizen staying in India can't claim right to:
A. Freedom of trade and profession
B. Equality before the law
C. Protection of life and personal liberty
D. Freedom Of religion
Correct : A. Freedom of trade and profession
24. Freedom of the press in India is -
A. available to the people under the law of the Parliament
B. specifically provided in the Constitution
C. implied in the right of freedom of expression
D. available to the people of India under executive order
Correct : C. implied in the right of freedom of expression
25. The 73rd Amendment of the Indian Constitution deals with -
A. Panchayati Raj
B. Compulsory primary education
C. Nagar Palikas
D. Minimum age of marriage
Correct : A. Panchayati Raj
26. Members of the Executive under Presidential System of Government –
A. are drawn from both the Houses of Legislature
B. are only from the popular House
C. are not members of either House of Legislature
D. become members of Legis lature after their appointment
Correct : C. are not members of either House of Legislature
27. The Vice-President is:
A. A member of Lok Sabha
B. A member of Rajya Sabha
C. A member of either House
D. Not a member of the Parliament
Correct : D. Not a member of the Parliament
28. In which of the Parliamentary Financial Committees is the Rajya Sabha not represented?
A. Public Accounts Committee
B. Estimates Committee
C. Committee on Public Undertakings
D. Expenditure Committee
Correct : B. Estimates Committee
29. A Panchayat Samiti at the block level is
A. An advisory body
B. An administrative authority
C. A consultant committee
D. A supervisory authority
Correct : D. A supervisory authority
30. The Governor of an Indian State is appointed by the –
A. President of India
B. Prime Minister
C. ChiefJustice of High Court
D. Chief Minister of the State
Correct : A. President of India
31. A State cannot exist without –
A. Democratic government
B. Parliamentary government
C. Presidential government
D. Some kind of government
Correct : D. Some kind of government
32. Who is the highest Law Officer of a State?
A. Solicitor General
B. Secretary General, Law Department
C. Attorney General
D. Advocate General
Correct : D. Advocate General
33. According to the Constitution of India, which one of the following rights cannot be taken away during emergency?
A. Right to speak
B. Right to freedom of movement
C. Right to life
D. Right to organize
Correct : C. Right to life
34. Which one of the following rights has been described by Dr. Ambedkar as `The heart and soul of the Constitution'?
A. Right of Equality
B. Right to freedom
C. Right to property
D. Right to Constitutional Remedies
Correct : D. Right to Constitutional Remedies
35. The members of Gram Sabha are -
A. Sarpanch, Upsarpanch and all elected Panchas
B. Sarpanch, Upsarpanch and Village level worker
C. sarpanch, Gram Sevak and elected Panchas
D. Registered voters of Village Panchayat
Correct : D. Registered voters of Village Panchayat
36. If there is dispute between Panchayat and Cantonment Board, who will decide finally?
A. Collector, subject commissioner
B. Divisional Commissioner, subject to approval of Panchayat and Rural Development Department
C. Panchayat and Rural Development Department, Subject to approval of State Government
D. State Government, Subject to approval of central Government
Correct : D. State Government, Subject to approval of central Government
37. Who notify the alteration in limits of Block and Zila Panchayat?
A. Governor
B. State Election Commission
C. Divisional Commissioner
D. Collector and District Returning Officer
Correct : A. Governor
38. With reference to Lok Adalats, which one among the following statements is correct?
A. Lok Adalats have the jurisdiction to settle the matters at pre-litigative state and not those matters pending before any court
B. Lok Adalats can deal with matters which are civil and not criminal in nature
C. Lok Adalats has not been given any statutory status so far
D. No appeal lies in a civil court against the order of the Lok Adalat
Correct : D. No appeal lies in a civil court against the order of the Lok Adalat
39. The Planning Commission of India has been constituted -
A. under constitutional provision with specific mention for it
B. through an Act of Parliament
C. through a cabinet decision in this regard
D. through constitutional amendment
Correct : C. through a cabinet decision in this regard
40. The salaries and emoluments of the judges of the Supreme Court are charged on
A. The Reserve Bank of India
B. The Contingency Fund of India
C. The Consolidated Fund of India
D. The Finance Commission
Correct : C. The Consolidated Fund of India
41. Which one among the following is not an attribute of sustainability of Indian democratic model?
A. Unity in diversity in socio-cultural patterns
B. Sustained economic growth specially after the 1990s
C. Regular elections in the centre and states since 1950s
D. A strong industrial base with a vibrant federal structure
Correct : B. Sustained economic growth specially after the 1990s
42. Which among the following is not a part of the electoral reforms?
A. Installation of electronic voting machines
B. Appointment of election Commissioner
C. Registration of Political parties
D. Disqualifying the offenders
Correct : A. Installation of electronic voting machines
43. For election to the Lok Sabha, a nomination paper can be filed by -
A. anyone residing in India.
B. a resident of the constituency from which the election is to be contested.
C. any citizen of India whose name appears in the electoral roll of a constituency.
D. any citizen of India.
Correct : C. any citizen of India whose name appears in the electoral roll of a constituency.
44. The comptroller and Auditor General of India -
A. Can be appointed as a member of UPSC after his retirement
B. Can be appointed as the Chairman of State Public Service commission
C. Is not eligible for any further office either under the Central government or the state government after his retirement
D. Can be appointed to any office after his retirement
Correct : C. Is not eligible for any further office either under the Central government or the state government after his retirement
45. The three-tier Panchayat Raj system in India was proposed by the –
A. Balwant Rai Mehta Committee
B. Ashok Mehta Committee
C. Royal Commission
D. None of the above
Correct : A. Balwant Rai Mehta Committee
46. The basic features of the Indian Constitution which are not amendable under Article 368 are –
A. Sovereignty, territorial integrity, federal system and judicial review.
B. Sovereignty, territorial integrity and parliamentary system of government.
C. Judicial review and the federal system.
D. Sovereignty, territorial integrity, federal system, judicial review and parliamentary system of government.
Correct : D. Sovereignty, territorial integrity, federal system, judicial review and parliamentary system of government.
47. Which one of the following has the right to address the Parliament?
A. Atorney General of India
B. Chief Election Commissioner of India
C. Chief Justice of India
D. National Security Advisor
Correct : A. Atorney General of India
48. Which one of the following is not an essential element of a federal form of government?
A. Written Constitution
B. Independent judiciary
C. Division of power
D. Separation of powers
Correct : D. Separation of powers
49. Which one of the following is the basis of federal government?
A. Supremacy of the parliament
B. Supremacy of Judiciary
C. Division of powers between federal and state government
D. single citizenship
Correct : C. Division of powers between federal and state government
50. When martial law is imposed, Parliament cannot make law ill respect of which one of following matters?
A. indemnify any person in respect of any act done by him in connection with the maintenance of order in the area where martial law was in force
B. Parliament can by law validate any sentence passed when martial law was in force in the area
C. A law of Parliament can validate forfeiture ordered when martial law was in force in the area
D. Any act done under martial law can be validated by Parliament by law
Correct : D. Any act done under martial law can be validated by Parliament by law
51. Joint sittings of the two Houses of Indian Parliament are held to -
A. elect the President of India
B. elect the Vice President of India
C. adopt a Constitution Amendment Bill
D. consider and pass a Bill on which the two Houses disagree
Correct : D. consider and pass a Bill on which the two Houses disagree
52. The Provision for the Calling Attention Notices has restricted the scope of which of the following?
A. Short duration discussion
B. Question hour
C. Adjournment motion
D. Zero hour
Correct : C. Adjournment motion
53. Which one of the following statements about the Parliament of India is NOT correct?
A. The Constitution provides for a Parliamentary form of Government
B. The foremost function of the Parliament is to provide a Cabinet
C. The membership of the Cabinet is restricted to the Lower House
D. The Cabinet has to enjoy the confidence of the majority in the popular Chamber.
Correct : C. The membership of the Cabinet is restricted to the Lower House
54. The Parliament can legislate on a subject in the State list -
A. by the wish of the President
B. if the Rajya Sabha passes such a resolution
C. under any circumstances
D. by asking the legislature of the concerned state
Correct : B. if the Rajya Sabha passes such a resolution
55. No money bill can be introduced in the Legislative Assembly of the a State, except on the recommendations of -
A. the Parliament
B. the Governor of the State
C. the president of India
D. a Special Committee of Ministers
Correct : B. the Governor of the State
56. Who nominates the Chairman of the Public Accounts Committee of Indian Parliament?
A. The Speaker of Lok Sabha
B. The Prime Minister
C. The President
D. The Chairman of Rajya Sabha
Correct : A. The Speaker of Lok Sabha
57. Which one the following statements is not correct?
A. The Constitutional Amendment Bill has to be passed by both houses of Parliament separately with special majority
B. Constitutional cases in Supreme Court is heard by minimum five judges
C. Freedom of press is included in the fundamental right Freedom of speech and expression.
D. Zakir Hussain was the first Vice President of India
Correct : D. Zakir Hussain was the first Vice President of India
58. Government is classified as parliamentary and presidential on the basis of which of the following?
A. Relations between legislature and executive
B. Relations between politician and civil servants
C. Written or unwritten Constitutions
D. Rigid or Flexible Constitutions
Correct : A. Relations between legislature and executive
59. The presidential system operates on the principle of –
A. Division of powers
B. Separation of powers
C. Fusion of powers
D. Balance of powers
Correct : B. Separation of powers
60. Which Amendment Act introduced changes in the preamble to the Indian Constitution?
A. the 38th Amendment Act, 1975
B. the 40th Amendment Act, 1976
C. the 42nd Amendment Act, 1976
D. the 44th Amendment Act, 1979
Correct : C. the 42nd Amendment Act, 1976
61. The expression tratna Sabha' correctly refers to –
A. Elder citizens of a village
B. Whole population of a village
C. Electorate for the Panchayat
D. Elected members of the Panchayat
Correct : C. Electorate for the Panchayat
62. Judges of the Supreme Court and High Court can be removed by –
A. The President
B. Parliament
C. Union Council of Ministers
D. Chief Justice of the Supreme court
Correct : A. The President
63. Where the High Courts in India first set up?
A. Delhi and Calcutta
B. Bombay, Madras, Calcutta
C. Bombay, DelOhi, Calcutta
D. Madras and Bombay
Correct : B. Bombay, Madras, Calcutta
64. Who is not the ex officio member of the National Human Rights Commission?
A. The Chairperson of the National Commission for Minorities.
B. The Chairperson of the Law Commission of India
C. The Chairperson of the National commission for the scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes
D. The Chairperson of the National Commission for Women
Correct : B. The Chairperson of the Law Commission of India
65. The term of office of members of the National Human Rights Commission from the date on which he/she enters upon his /her office is -
A. five years or till the age of 65 years
B. five years or till the age of 70 years
C. six years or till the age of 65 years
D. six years or till the age of 70 years
Correct : B. five years or till the age of 70 years
66. Which statement is true in relation to the Protection of Human Rights Act?
A. The Act came into force on 23rd September, 1993
B. The Act came into force on 28th September, 1993
C. The Act came into force on 23rd September, 1995
D. (4) The Act came into force on 28th September, 1995
Correct : B. The Act came into force on 28th September, 1993
67. What is correct about the powers of Zila Panchayats of Scheduled Areas?
A. To plan minor water bodies
B. To control over institutions in all social sectors
C. To control on tribal sub-plans
D. All of the above
Correct : D. All of the above
68. The Municipal Commissioner is appointed by -
A. Member of Legislative Assembly
B. Zila Parishad
C. State Government
D. District Magistrate
Correct : C. State Government
69. Which one of the following is not related to the fundamental rights of the Indian Constitution?
A. Freedom of association
B. Freedom of movement
C. Freedom of assembly
D. Freedom to be elected as a member of parliament
Correct : D. Freedom to be elected as a member of parliament
70. The main purpose of Panchayati Raj is
A. To create employment
B. To increase agricultural production
C. To make people politically conscious
D. To make people participate in development administration
Correct : C. To make people politically conscious
71. The legislature in a democratic country can influence public opinion by –
A. Focusing attention on public issues
B. Granting rights
C. Enacting non-controversial laws
D. Defining the duties of the citizens
Correct : A. Focusing attention on public issues
72. There is a Parliamentary system of Government in India because –
A. The Lok Sabha is directly elected by the people
B. The Parliament can amend the Constitution
C. The Rajya Sabha cannot be dissolved
D. The Council of Ministers is responsible to the Lok Sabha
Correct : D. The Council of Ministers is responsible to the Lok Sabha
73. The chairman of the Public Accounts Committee in the Indian Parliament is :
A. The Leader of Opposition Party
B. The Speaker of Lok Sabha
C. The Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha
D. The Chajman of Rajya Sabha
Correct : A. The Leader of Opposition Party
74. Which of the following is not related to the powers of the Governor?
A. Diplomatic and military powers
B. Power to appoint Advocate General
C. Summoning, proroguing and dissolving State Legislature
D. Power to grant pardons, reprieves, respites or remission of punishments
Correct : A. Diplomatic and military powers
75. Who among the following recommends to the Parliament for the abolition of the Legislative Council in a State?
A. The President of India
B. The Governor of the concerned State
C. The Legislative Council of the concerned State
D. The Legislative Assembly of the concerned State
Correct : D. The Legislative Assembly of the concerned State
76. Under which law it is prescribed that all proceedings in the Supreme Court of India shall be in English language?
A. The Supreme Court Rules, 1966
B. A Legislation made by the Parliament
C. Article 145 of the Constitution of India
D. Article 348 of the Constitution of India
Correct : D. Article 348 of the Constitution of India
77. Stability of the Government is assured in –
A. Parliamentary Form of Government.
B. Presidential Form of Government.
C. Plural Executive System
D. Direction Democracy
Correct : B. Presidential Form of Government.
78. Who has the right to seek advisory opinion of the Supreme Court of India, on any question of law?
A. Prime Minister
B. President
C. Any judge of the High Court
D. All of the above
Correct : B. President
79. The number of judges can be modified in the Supreme Court by -
A. Presidential Order
B. Supreme Court by Notification
C. Parliament by Law
D. Central Government by notification
Correct : C. Parliament by Law
80. Ideas of welfare state are contained in –
A. Fundamental Rights
B. Directive Principles of State Policy
C. Preamble of the Constitution
D. Part VII
Correct : B. Directive Principles of State Policy
81. The Supreme Court of India enjoys -
A. Original jurisdiction
B. Advisory jurisdiction
C. Appellate and advisory jurisdictions
D. Original, appellate and advisory jurisdictions.
Correct : D. Original, appellate and advisory jurisdictions.
82. Vice-President of India is elected by an electoral college consisting of -
A. members of both Houses of Parliament
B. members of Rajya Sabha only
C. elected members of both Houses of Parliament
D. elected members of Lok Sabha only
Correct : A. members of both Houses of Parliament
83. Department of official languages is subordinate office of which ministry?
A. Ministry of social justice and Empowerment
B. Ministry of Home Affairs
C. Ministry of Rural Development
D. Ministry of Culture
Correct : B. Ministry of Home Affairs
84. The Prime Minister of India is the head of the -
A. State government
B. Central government
C. Both the state and Central government
D. None of them
Correct : D. None of them
85. If the position of President and Vice- President are vacant, who officiates as the President of India?
A. The Prime Minister
B. The Chief Justice of India
C. The Speaker of Lok Sabha
D. None of these
Correct : B. The Chief Justice of India
86. Which one of the following was not the basis invoked by the US for attacking Iraq in March 2003?
A. Iraq possessed weapons of mass destruction
B. Saddam Hussain had links with Al Quaeda
C. Regime Change in Iraq
D. Iraq had not withdrawn from Kuwait complety
Correct : D. Iraq had not withdrawn from Kuwait complety
87. Which of the following Republic/Republics was/were supported by Russia in Georgia war of 2008?
A. South Ossettia
B. South Ossettia and Abkhazia both
C. Abkhazia
D. Nogorno Karabakh
Correct : B. South Ossettia and Abkhazia both
88. The proposal for framing of the Constitution of India by an elected Constituent Assembly was made by -
A. Simon Commissions
B. Government of India Act, 1935
C. Cripps Mission
D. British cabinet Delegation
Correct : D. British cabinet Delegation
89. As per United Nations Convention on the Law of sea (UNCLOS) states are entitled for Jurisdiction over sea water as under —
A. three miles from sea shore as territorial waters
B. twelve miles from the shore for shipping
C. two hundred miles as Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ)
D. all the three jurisdictions
Correct : C. two hundred miles as Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ)
90. Under Bush Doctrine, the USA held states responsible for activities inside their territor and thus acquired the right to -
A. act unilaterally against rogue and failed states
B. act against states which were opposed to it ideologically
C. move against states which refused to join in drive for NATO expansion
D. intervene institutions of ethnic cleansing
Correct : A. act unilaterally against rogue and failed states
91. The US stopped cultivating ties with Taliban regime in Afghanistan after—
A. 9/11 attacks in the US
B. attacks on US embassies in Kenya and Tanzania
C. attack on US military mission headquarter in Riyadh
D. failures of talks on gas pipeline through Afghanistan
Correct : B. attacks on US embassies in Kenya and Tanzania
92. With reference to India polity, which one of the following statements is correct?
A. Planning commission is accountable to parliament.
B. President can make ordinance only when either of the two houses of parliament is not in session.
C. The minimum age prescribed for appointment as a judge of the Supreme Court is 40 years.
D. NDC is constituted of Union Finance Minister and the Chief Ministers of all the states.
Correct : B. President can make ordinance only when either of the two houses of parliament is not in session.
93. Department of Border management is a department of which one of the following Union Ministers?
A. Ministry of Defense
B. Ministry of Home Affairs.
C. Ministry of Shipping, Road Transport and Highways
D. Ministry of Environment and Forest.
Correct : B. Ministry of Home Affairs.
94. If the Prime Minister is a member of the Rajya Sabha -
A. He/she has to get elected to the Lok Sabha within 6 months
B. He/she can declare the government's policies only in the Rajya Sabha
C. He/she cannot take part in the voting when a vote of no confidence is under consideration
D. He/she cannot take part in the budget deliberation in the Lok Sabha
Correct : C. He/she cannot take part in the voting when a vote of no confidence is under consideration
95. Who among the following Indian Prime Ministers resigned before facing a vote of no- confidence in the Lok Sabha?
A. Chandra Shekhar
B. Morarji Desai
C. Chaudhary Charan Singh
D. VP Singh
Correct : C. Chaudhary Charan Singh
96. The impeachment of the President of India can be initiated in -
A. either house of the Parliament
B. a joint siting of both houses of the Parliament
C. the Lok Sabha alone
D. the Rajya Sabha alone
Correct : A. either house of the Parliament
97. The President of India is elected by a proportional representation system through single transferable vote. This implies that -
A. each elected MP or MLA has an equal number of votes
B. MPs and MLAs of a State have the same number of votes
C. all MPs and MLAs have one vote each
D. MPs and MLAs of different States have different numbers of votes
Correct : C. all MPs and MLAs have one vote each
98. On which of the following grounds can a judge of the Supreme Court be impeached?
A. Violation of constitution
B. Proved misbehaviors
C. Incapacity to act as a judge
D. (2) & (3) both
Correct : D. (2) & (3) both
99. Acting Chief Justice of the Supreme Court in India is appointed by the -
A. Chief Justice of Supreme Court
B. Prime Minister
C. President
D. Law Minister
Correct : C. President
100. Indian Citizenship is granted by -
A. The President of India
B. The Prime Minister
C. The Ministry of Home Affairs
D. The Ministry of External Affairs
Correct : C. The Ministry of Home Affairs