1. Who is the source of legal authority or
sovereignty in India?
Correct : B. Constitution of India.
2. Ultimate sovereignty lies in:
Correct : D. People.
3. On which date Constitution of India was adopted and enacted by the Constituent Assembly?
Correct : C. November 26, 1949.
4. Indian Constitution came into force on:
Correct : B. 26 Jan 1950.
5. The members of the Constituent Assembly were
Correct : D. elected by the Provincial Assemblies.
6. Provincial Constitution Committee of the
Constituent Assembly had been chaired by:
Correct : B. Sardar Patel.
7. Who of the following was the Permanent
Chairman of the Constituent Assembly?
Correct : B. R. Ambedkar b) Dr. Rajendra Prasad.
8. The Indian Constitution is
I. an unwritten Constitution
II. a written Constitution.
III. largely based on the Government of India Act, 1935.
IV. a gift of British Parliament.
Of these statements:
Correct : B. II and III are correct.
9. Among the following provisions, which one come into force soon after adoption of the Constitution on 26th November, 1949?
Correct : D. All of the above
10. The salient features of the Indian Constitution provide for
I. single citizenship for the whole of India.
II. strictly federal form of Government.
III. unique blend of rigidity and flexibility.
Of the above statements:
Correct : D. I and III are correct.
11. Which one of the following is not a salient feature of the Constitutions of India?
Correct : C. Committed judiciary.
12. The Constitution of India is:
Correct : A. Partly rigid and partly flexible.
13. The President of India has the same Constitutional authority as the:
Correct : A. British Monarch
14. In a Parliamentary system the Executive is responsible:
Correct : B. To legislature.
15. India has Parliamentary Democracy because:
Correct : B. The Council of Ministers is responsible to the Legislature.
16. Which one of the following determines that
the Indian Constitution is Federal?
Correct : D. Distribution of powers between the Centre and the States.
17. Which one of the following is the mandatory minimum requirement for a functional federation?
Correct : C. Distribution of legislative and administrative powers between the two sets of Governments, National and State, so as to ensure the Independence of the Governments within their respective spheres.
18. The structure of the Indian Constitution is
Correct : A. federal in form and unitary in spirit.
19. The Constitution of India has created:
Correct : B. A very strong centre.
20. At the time of Emergency, the Indian State become …… from ……
Correct : D. Unitary, Quasi-federal.
21. ‘The Constitution establishes a System of Government which is almost quasi-federal’. This was a statement of:
Correct : C. Prof. K.C. Wheare.
22. The Constitution of India describes India as:
Correct : C. A Union of States.
23. Our Constitution provides for the Constitution of the:
Correct : C. Union and all the States except Jammu & Kashmir.
24. Article 1 of the Constitution of India declares India a Union of States. The territory of this Union of States comprises:
Correct : D. States, Union territories and Territories which may
25. In which year, Sikkim was associated in the Indian Union?
Correct : B. 1975.
26. Dealing with the Chapter of Citizenship under the Constitution, the Supreme Court has held that Sonia Gandhi, the President of Congress (I) is not an Italian citizen, but is an Indian citizen because she is governed by:
Correct : C. The Citizenship Act, 1955.
27. The concept of Panchayati Raj has been introduced in our Constitution by the insertion of:
Correct : C. Article 243.
28. The Panchayati Raj Administration is primarily
aimed:
Correct : D. To arouse in the people of each area intensive and continuous interest in the community development programme.
29. Panchayati Raj System was adopted to:
Correct : D. To introduce a form of local self-government at the village, block and district levels.
30. Panchayati Raj, as introduced in 1959, operates at:
Correct : D. Village, Block and District Levels.
31. Panchayati Raj System was introduced in the
two States; one was Rajasthan, the other was:
Correct : C. Andhra Pradesh.
32. The 73rd Constitution Amendment Act, 1992
refers to the:
Correct : C. Laying the foundation for strong and vibrant Panchayati Raj Institutions in the country.
33. In whose time period, the Panchayats were given the constitutional status?
Correct : D. P.V. Narsimha Rao.
34. The 73rd Amendment provides a __ tier system of Panchayats:
Correct : A. Three.
35. How Many seats are reserved in all Panchayats
at all levels for women?
Correct : B. One-third.
36. The tenure of all Panchayats at all levels is:
Correct : D. Five years.
37. If a new State of the Indian Union is to be created, which one of the following Scheduled of the Constitution must be amended?
Correct : A. First.
38. Which one of the following statements correctly describes the Fourth Schedule of the Constitution of India?
Correct : D. It allocates seats in the Council of States.
39. The Eighth Schedule of Indian Constitution contains the:
Correct : C. A list of languages recognized by the Constitution.
40. Which one of the following Schedules of the Constitution of India contains provisions regarding Anti-Defection Act?
Correct : D. Tenth Schedule.
41. When Constitution was framed, the number of Schedules were:
Correct : A. Eight.
42. Match List I and List II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists:
List-I List-II
(Features of the Indian Constitution) (Borrowed from)
I. Fundamental Rights. A. UK.
II. Parliamentary System of Government. B. USA.
III. Emergency provisions. C. Ireland.
IV. Directive Principles of State Policy. D. German Reich.
E. Canada.
Correct : C. I-B, II-A, III-D, IV-C.
43. The Constitution of India borrowed the scheme of Indian Federation from the Constitution of:
Correct : B. Canada.
44. The framers of the Constitution borrowed the idea of judicial review from the Constitution of:
Correct : B. USA.
45. Which one of the following feature was not borrowed by the Indian Constitution from the British Constitution?
Correct : C. Election provisions.
46. Which part of the Constitution of India talks about the Municipalities?
Correct : B. Part IX (A).
47. It is often said that the key to the minds of the makers of our Constitution lies in the:
Correct : A. Preamble.
48. The aims and objectives of the Constitution have been enshrined in
Correct : A. the Preamble.
49. Preamble to the Constitution of India
Correct : C. indicates the source from which the Constitution derives its authority.
50. The Preamble to the Indian Constitution is
Correct : C. a part of the Constitution and can be of use in interpreting other provisions of the Constitution in cases of ambiguity.
51. The source of “we the people” in the Preamble is:
Correct : C. United Nations.
52. The following are enshrined in the Preamble to the Constitution of India:
1. Equality of status and opportunity.
2. Liberty of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship.
3. Justice-social, economic and political.
4. Fraternity assuring the dignity of the individual.
5. Unity and integrity of the Nation
Which one of the following is the correct order in which they appear in the preamble?
Correct : B. 3 – 2 – 1 – 4 – 5.
53. Which one of the following is in correct order
in the Preamble of the Indian Constitution?
Correct : A. Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic, Republic.
54. The text of the preamble of the Constitution of India aims to secure
Correct : C. dignity of the individual and unity and integrity of the nation.
55. Which amendment of the Constitution has added the words, ‘Secular’ and ‘Integrity’ in the Preamble to the Constitution?
Correct : C. 42nd Amendment Act.
56. How many times has the Preamble of the
Constitution of India been amended so far?
Correct : C. Once.
57. The word ‘secular’ denotes:
Correct : B. Freedom of religion and worship to all citizens.
58. The term “socialist” used in the Preamble
means a State whose basic policy is to
Correct : D. prohibit concentration of wealth and distribute equitably the natural resources.
59. The term “Social Justice” used in the Preamble to the Constitution of India means:
Correct : B. Provision for decent standard of living and removal of social inequality.
60. The word ‘Sovereign’ in the Preamble of the Constitution of India emphasizes that India is:
Correct : D. Not bound by external commands and the Government of India is equipped with the power to rule within India.
61. ‘Liberty, Equality and Fraternity’ is a slogan associated with
Correct : C. French Revolution.
62. The Preamble to the Constitution of India secures Justice, Liberty, Equality and Fraternity to
Correct : C. all citizens.
63. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?
Correct : B. Sovereign: Constitution rests on the people’s will.
64. Who described the Part III of the Indian Constitution as “most criticized part of the Constitution?”
Correct : B. B.R. Ambedkar.
65. The original Constitution classified Fundamental Rights into seven categories, but now
Correct : A. there are six.
66. Right to Property in India is:
Correct : B. Legal Right.
67. ‘Right to property’ has been taken away from Fundamental rights a placed in Article 300 A through:
Correct : D. 44th Amendment.
68. Which one of the following has been wrongly listed as a special feature of Fundamental Rights in India?
Correct : D. Fundamental Rights can be waived by a person.
69. Fundamental rights are based on the:
Correct : B. Bill of Rights (U.S.A.) with in-built limitations.
70. Fundamental Rights secured to the citizen/individuals is protected against:
Correct : A. State action.
71. Fundamental Rights are:
Correct : D. All of the above.
72. Who enjoys the right to impose reasonable restrictions on the Fundamental Rights of Indian citizens?
Correct : B. The Parliament.
73. Whether judiciary is the part of the ‘other authority’ in Art. 12 of the Constitution?
Correct : A. Yes.
74. When an enactment is of such a nature that no separation is possible between inconsistent and consistent part:
Correct : B. Whole Act will be inoperative.
75. A law, which abridges Fundamental Rights, is not a nullity but remains inoperative till the shadow of Fundamental Rights falls over such rights. This is known as the doctrine of:
Correct : C. Eclipse.
76. Under the Constitution the Doctrine of eclipse applies
Correct : D. to all laws, pre-constitutional and postconstitutional.
77. “Legal equality” under the Constitution of India implies that
Correct : A. there should be equality amongst equals and inequality among inequals.
78. The right to ‘equality before the law’ contained in Article 14 of the Constitution of India is available to:
Correct : D. All persons whether natural or legal.
79. Who is exception to equality before law (Article 14)?
Correct : C. Both.
80. Indian Constitution permits discrimination on the basis of:
Correct : D. Not on any ground.
81. Reservation of seats in educational institutions in favour of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes is governed by:
Correct : A. Article 15(4) of the constitution.
82. Article 15 prohibits discrimination on grounds only of:
Correct : C. Religion, Race, Caste, Sex, Place of birth or any of them.
83. Prohibition against discrimination under
Article 15 is for:
Correct : B. Citizens.
84. For which of the following, can special provisions be made under Article 15 of the Constitution of India?
1) Women and children.
2) Scheduled Tribes.
3) Economically backward classes.
4) Socially backward classes.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct : A. 1, 2 and 4.
85. Through which of the following provisions, does the Constitution of India explicitly prohibit racial discrimination in India:
Correct : C. Article 15 and 16.
86. Article 16 provides equally of opportunity in matters of public employment for:
Correct : A. All citizens.
87. Under Article 16(4) State is empowered to make provisions for reservations of appointments and posts for:
Correct : D. Socially and educationally backward class of
88. After the judgement of the Supreme Court in Mandal case, it has been observed that “The poisonous weed of casteism has been replanted where it will trouble us a thousand years. Each age will have to consider it.” This was observed by:
Correct : B. N.A. Palkhiwala.
89. Which of the following sections of citizens should be excluded from the benefits of reservations according to the principle of ‘Creamy Layer’ as propounded by the Supreme Court in the Mandal Commission judgement?
1. Advanced sections among the Other Backward Classes.
2. Advanced sections among the Scheduled Castes.
3. Advanced sections among the Scheduled Tribes.
4. Advanced sections among the economically backward classes. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct : A. 1 only.
90. Tamil Nadu Reservation Act providing 69% reservation has been placed in which Schedule
of the Constitutions?
Correct : D. Ninth.
91. Under which of the following the ‘Untouchability’ has been declared abolished in India?
Correct : C. Constitution of India.
92. Which of the following is included in Art, 19 (1)(a):