Quiznetik

Indian Polity | Set 3

1. The first attempt to introduce a representative and popular element in the governance of India was made through:

Correct : D. Government of India Act, 1919

2. Which of the following acts introduced communal electorate in India?

Correct : A. Indian Council Act, 1909

3. By virtue of which Act, diarchy was introduced in India?

Correct : B. Government of India Act, 1919

4. The Instrument of instructions contained in the Government of India Act, 1935 ha been incorporated in the Constitution of India in the year 1950 as –

Correct : B. Directive Principles of the State Policy

5. The Government of India Act, 1935 was based on:

Correct : A. the principle of federation and parliamentary system

6. Consider the following Acts: 1. The Regulating Act, 1773 2. Pitt’s India Act, 1784 3. The Charter Act, 1793 4. Indian Council Act,1861 What is the correct chronological sequence of these Acts?

Correct : A. 1, 2, 3, 4

7. Consider the following statements – The objective of the Montague-Chelmsford Reforms of 1919 was: 1. To give power to the local government 2. To establish diarchy in the provinces 3. The extension of provincial government Which of these statements are correct?

Correct : C. 2 and 3

8. Consider the following with reference to the provisions of ‘Government of India Act, 1935’: 1. Establishment of an all-Indian Federation 2. Provincial autonomy, with a Government responsible to an elected legislature 3. Redistribution of provinces and the creation of two new provinces Which of these were embodied in the Government India Act, 1935?

Correct : B. 1 and 2

9. Consider the following statements with reference to the provisions of Morley-Minto Reform Act in the Colonial India: 1. The Morley- Minto Reform Act raised the number of additional number of the Central Legislature 2. It introduced the principle of communal representation in the Legislature 3. It empowered the Legislation to discuss the budget and to move resolutions on it Which of these statements are correct?

Correct : C. 1, 2 and 3

10. Two independent states of India and Pakistan were created by:

Correct : D. The Indian Independence Act

11. In the Federation under the Act of 1935 residuary powers were given to the:

Correct : C. Governor General

12. Who was the Chairman of the Union Power Committee of Constituent Assembly of India?

Correct : B. Dr. B. R. Ambedkar

13. What was the basis for constituting the Constituent Assembly of India?

Correct : B. The Cabinet Mission Plan, 1946

14. The Constitution of India was adopted by the Constituent Assembly of India on –

Correct : C. 26th November, 1949

15. Who presided over the first meeting of the Indian Constituent Assembly?

Correct : B. Sachchidananda Sinha

16. Who among the following was the advisor to the Drafting Committee of Constituent Assembly?

Correct : D. B.N. Rau

17. The Constituent Assembly of India held its first meeting on:

Correct : A. 9th December, 1946

18. Who among the following was not a member of the Constituent Assembly?

Correct : C. Jai Prakash Narayan

19. Who was the Chairman of the Provincial Constitution Committee of the Constituent Assembly?

Correct : D. Sardar Patel

20. The number of members included in the Constitution Drafting Committee was:

Correct : A. Seven

21. Who proposed the Preamble before the Drafting Committee of the Constitution?

Correct : A. Jawahar Lal Nehru

22. The Presidential Government operates on the principle of –

Correct : D. Separation of powers

23. Match List-1with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below the lists – List – I List – II (Forms of Government) (Principles) A. Presidential system 1. Seperation of powers B. Parliamentary system 2.Close relationship between executive and legislature C. Federal System 3. Concentration D. Unitary System 4. Division of power Code: A B C D

Correct : A. 1 2 3 4

24. Which of the following countries have an unwritten constitution?

Correct : B. UK

25. The basic features of the Indian Constitution which are not amendable under Article 368 are –

Correct : D. Sovereignty, territorial integrity, federal system, judicial review and parliamentary system of government

26. The Unitary system of Government possesses which of the following advantages?

Correct : B. Strong State

27. Which of the following countries enjoys a federal form of Government?

Correct : B. USA

28. The English Crown is an example of:

Correct : C. Nominal Executive

29. The declaration that Democracy is a Government of the people, by the people, for the people’s was made by:

Correct : A. Abraham Lincoln

30. What is Gandhi’s definition of Ram Raj?

Correct : A. Sovereignty of the people based on pure moral authority

31. Statement: I. The constitution of India is a liberal constitution. Statement: II. It provides fundamental rights to individuals Codes:

Correct : A. Both the statements are individually true and statement II is the correct explanation of statement I.

32. At which of its session, did the Congress officially accept the Socialistic Pattern of Society?

Correct : B. Avadi Session of 1955

33. In Indian Polity which one is Supreme?

Correct : B. The Constitution

34. The Indian Polity, the executive is subordinate to the –

Correct : B. Legislature

35. Who among the following gave the following statement about the Indian Constitution? ‘Indian Constitution rigidity and too much flexibility?

Correct : C. Alexanderowicz

36. Which of the following official documents is related with India?

Correct : A. White Paper

37. Which one of the following is a basic feature of the Presidential Government?

Correct : B. Single Executive

38. Where was, the concept of written constitution, first born?

Correct : A. France

39. Where was the first parliamentary form of Government formed?

Correct : A. Britain

40. Who called Indian Federalism as the Cooperative Federalism?

Correct : A. G. Austin

41. The Constitution of India is –

Correct : D. Partly rigid, partly flexible

42. The concept of Judicial Review in our Constitution has been taken from the Constitution of:

Correct : B. USA

43. The Constitution of India borrowed the scheme of Indian federation from the constitution of:

Correct : A. USA

44. The Federal System with strong centre’ has been borrowed by the Indian Constitution from:

Correct : B. Canada

45. The idea of including the Emergency provisions in the Constitution of India has been borrowed from the –

Correct : B. Weimar Constitution of Germany

46. The office of Lokpal and Lokayukta in India is based on which one of the following?

Correct : B. Ombudsman in Scandinavia

47. Match List-I (Provision of the Constitution of India) with List-II (Source) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists – List I List II A. Directive Principles 1. Constitution of Ireland B. Emergency Power of 2. Constitution of Germany The president C. The Union-State relations 3.Constitution of Canada D. Amendments of the 4.Constitution of South Africa Constitution Code : A B C D

Correct : A. 1 2 3 4

48. Indian Constitution has taken certain features of the constitution of the constitutions of other countries. Which country has contributed to the framing of the Directive Principles of State Policy?

Correct : B. Ireland

49. Which of the following was the biggest source for the Constitution of India?

Correct : B. The Government of India act 1935

50. Of the following words in the Preamble of the Constitution of India which was not inserted through the Constitution (Forty Second) Amendment act, 1976?

Correct : C. Dignity

51. At the time of enactment of the Constitution, which one of the following Ideals was not included in the preamble?

Correct : C. Socialist

52. Which Amendment act introduced changes in the Preamble to the Indian Constitution?

Correct : C. the 42nd Amendment act, 1976

53. The preamble of our Constitution reads India as–

Correct : A. Sovereign, Socialist, Secular Democratic Republic

54. Which Amendment of the Indian Constitution inserted the two words – Socialist and Secular in the preamble?

Correct : C. 42nd

55. For which one of the following judgments of Supreme Court of India, the Kesavananda Bharti Vs State of India case is considered a landmark?

Correct : D. The basic structure of the constitution, as defined in the Preamble, cannot be changed

56. In which Amendment, the words Socialist, secular and unity and integrity of the nation were added to the Preamble of constitution of India?

Correct : A. 42nd

57. Which one of the following describes India a secular state?

Correct : B. Preamble to the constitution

58. Which one of the following liberty is not embodied in the Preamble to the Constitution of India?

Correct : D. Economic Liberty

59. Which of the following is correct?

Correct : C. Social Equality is guaranteed in our Constitution

60. Which one of the following words was not included in the Preamble of the Indian Constitution in 1975?

Correct : D. Integrity

61. From the following languages listed in the English schedule of the constitution pick out of the one which is official language of a state –

Correct : B. Urdu

62. The item Education belongs to the –

Correct : C. Concurrent list

63. How many schedules the Constitution of India contains?

Correct : D. 12

64. Which article of the Indian constitution for the institution of Panchayati Raj?

Correct : C. Article 40

65. Article 1 of the constitution declares India as –

Correct : D. Union of states

66. How many articles are there in the Indian Constitution?

Correct : A. 395

67. Although union list, state list and concurrent list cover the entire legislative business yet there may be an item not mentioned anywhere. Who will legislate on that item?

Correct : A. Parliamentary only

68. Which part of the Indian Constitution deals with Fundamental Rights?

Correct : C. Part III

69. Part IV of constitution of India deals with:

Correct : C. Directive Principles of State policy

70. Power, authority and responsibilities of municipalities are listed in which one of the following schedules of the constitution of India?

Correct : D. Twelfth

71. How many languages have recognized by the Constitution –

Correct : C. 22

72. As we all know child labour is totally banned in India (Article 24) as per the child means a person who has not completed –

Correct : A. 14 years of his/her age

73. Under which one of the following articles of the Constitution of India, is the Annual Financial Statement of the economy to be laid by the Government on the table of the Parliament before 31st March, every year?

Correct : C. Article 112

74. Which one of the following articles of the Constitution of India has provision for the President to proclaim emergency?

Correct : A. Article 352

75. The method of Constitutional Amendment is provided in :

Correct : C. Article 368

76. The articles of the Constitution of India which deal with directive principles of state policy are –

Correct : C. 36 to 51

77. Under which article of the constitution of India can the President of India be impeached?

Correct : A. Article 61

78. In which part of the Constitution, details of citizenship are mentioned?

Correct : B. II

79. The Constitution of India does not clearly provide for the Freedom of Press but this freedom is implicit in the article –

Correct : A. 19 (i) a

80. Which article of the constitution of India deals with the appellate jurisdiction of the Supreme Court in connection with constitutional cases?

Correct : C. Article 132 read with Article 134 A

81. The Tenth Schedule of Indian Constitution deals with –

Correct : A. Anti-defection Legislation

82. Which of the constitutional provision lays down that taxes can neither be levied nor collected without authority of law?

Correct : A. Article 265

83. Functions to be assigned to Panchayats by 73rd Amendments of the Constitution are mentioned in –

Correct : B. Eleventh Schedule

84. Match List – I (parts of the Indian Constitution) with List – II (provisions) and select the correct answer using the codes given below – List – I List – II a) Party IV A 1. The Fundamental Duties b) Party VIII 2. The Union Territories c) Part IX 3. The Panchayats d) Part IX A 4. The municipalities Code: A B C D

Correct : A. 1 2 3 4

85. Which provision relating to the Fundamental Right is directly related to the exploitation of children?

Correct : D. Article 24

86. The article of Indian Constitution related to Abolition of Untouchability is –

Correct : C. Article 17

87. “It shall be the duty of every citizen of India to protect and improve the natural environment”. This statement refers to which of the following Articles of the constitution of India?

Correct : C. Article 51 A

88. By which name/names is our country mentioned in the Constitution?

Correct : A. India and Bharat

89. The Finance Commission is constituted under Article …. of the Constitution of India?

Correct : B. 280

90. Which one of the following schedules of the Indian Constitution lists the names of states and specific their territories?

Correct : A. First

91. How does the Constitution of India describe India as ?

Correct : B. A Union Of States

92. Which commission made the recommendations which formed the basis for the Punjab Reorganization act which created the states Punjab and Haryana?

Correct : C. Shah Commission

93. Article I of the constitution of India declares India as –

Correct : D. Union of States

94. The Number of Union Territories in India is –

Correct : C. 7

95. Which of the following states is a member of the Seven sisters?

Correct : B. Tripura

96. Among the following states, which one was formed last?

Correct : B. Gujarat

97. Which one of the following is the first state to have been formed on linguistic basis?

Correct : A. Andhra Pradesh

98. How many states and Union territories are there in India:

Correct : B. 28 states and 7 union territories (Including national capital Territory- 1)

99. The power to curve out a new state is vested in -

Correct : A. The Parliament

100. Andhra Pradesh was created as a linguistic state in –

Correct : C. 1956