1. To acquire citizenship by registration a person must have been resident in India for ______ immediately before making an application:
Correct : D. five years
2. Which of the following rights was described by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar as 'The Heart and
Soul of the Constitution' ?
Correct : D. Right to Constitutional Remedies
3. Which of the following Fundamental Rights is also available to a foreigner on the soil of India?
Correct : D. Protection of life and personal liberty against action without authority of law
4. With reference to the Constitution of India, which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched? Subject List
Correct : A. Stock Exchange State List
5. On whom does the Constitution confer special responsibility for the enforcement of
Fundamental Rights?
Correct : B. Supreme Court
6. According to Article 23, the following are prohibited:
Correct : A. traffic in human beings, beggary, slavery and bonded labour
7. Articles 20-22 relate to the fundamental right to life and personal liberty. These rights are available to :s
Correct : A. citizens and non-citizens
8. Which one of the following has been dropped from the list of personal freedoms enshrined in Article 19 of the Constitution?
Correct : B. Freedom to acquire, hold and dispose of property
9. Once the proclamation of emergency is made, the right of a citizen to move to the Supreme Court for the enforcement of his fundamental right is suspended by the:
Correct : B. President of India
10. Under Article 368, Parliament has no power to repeal Fundamental Rights because they are:
Correct : D. part of bask structure of essential framework of the Constitution
11. Which of the following statements is/are not indicative of the difference between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles? I. Directive Principles are aimed at promoting social welfare, while Fundamental Rights are for protecting individuals from State encroachment. II. Fundamental Rights are limitations on State action, while Directive Principles are positive instructions for the Government to work towards a just socioeconomic order. III. Fundamental Rights were included in the original Constitution, but Directive Principles were added by the first Amendment. IV. Fundamental Rights are amendable, but Directive Principles cannot be amended.
Correct : C. III and IV
12. The enforcement of Directive Principles depends most on :
Correct : C. resources available to the Government
13. In the Constitution, opportunities for the development of scientific temper, humanism and spirit of inquiry and reform are found in :
Correct : C. Fundamental Futies
14. The Fundamental Duties of Indian citizens were provided by :
Correct : A. an amendment of the Constiution
15. Which of the following is correct about the Fundamental Duties? I. These are not enforceable. II. They are primarily moral duties. III. They are not related to any legal rights.
Correct : A. I, II and III
16. The total number of Fundamental Duties mentioned in the Constitution is :
Correct : C. 11
17. Fundamental duties enacted in Part IV A of the Constitution are:
Correct : D. no more than meant to create psychological consciousness among the citizens and of education value
18. Fundamental duties have been added in the Constitution by 42nd Amendment Act, 1976
in accordance with the recommendations of:
Correct : C. Swaran Singh Committee
19. Respect for the National Flag and National Anthem is:
Correct : B. Fundamental Duty of every citizen
20. The Fundamental Duties: I. were introduced by the 44th Amendment. II. are incorporated in Part Ill-A. III. are not justiciable.
Correct : D. III only
21. Which of the following statements is/are correct? Article 26 of the Constitution of India states that subject to public order, morality and health, every religious denomination or any section thereof shall have the right 1. to establish and maintain institutions for religious and charitable purposes. 2. to manage its own affairs in matters of religion. 3. to own and acquire movable and immovable property. [CDS 2008]
Correct : D. 1, 2 and 3
22. Which of the following are among the Fundamental Duties as listed in the Constitution? I. To preserve the heritage of our composite culture. II. To abide by the Constitution. III. To strive for excellence in scientific research to win international fame. IV. To render national service when called upon to do so.
Correct : C. I, II and IV
23. The Fundamental Duties were included in the Constitution with the idea of:
Correct : B. curbing subversive and unconstitutional activities
24. The Constitution describes India as a :
Correct : B. Union of States
25. The 'Union of India' consists of: I. States II. Union Territories III. Acquired Territories
Correct : A. l only
26. Which one of the following subjects is under the Union List in the Seventh Schedule of
the Constitution of India ? [IAS 2006]
Correct : A. Regulation of labour and safety in mines and oilfields
27. Consider the following statements: 1. A person who was born on 26th January, 1951 in Rangoon, whose father was a citizen of India by birth at the time of his birth is deemed to be an Indian citizen by descent. 2. A person who was born on 1st·July, 1988 in Itanagar, whose mother is a citizen of India at the time of his birth but the father was not, is deemed to be a citizen of India by birth. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? [CDS 2009]
Correct : C. Both I and II
28. Which one among the following statements regarding the constitutionally guaranteed Right to Education in India is correct? [CDS 2011]
Correct : D. This right has been given to all Indian children between the ages of 6 to 14 Years under the 86th Constitutional Amendment Act
29. Which is the competent body to prescribe conditions for acquisition of citizenship? [SSC (10+2) 2010]
Correct : C. Parliament
30. In India the right to "freedom of speech and expression" is restricted on the grounds of 1. the sovereignty and integrity of India. 2. contempt of court. 3. friendly relation with foreign states. 4. protection of minorities. Select the correct answer using the code given below: [CDS 2010]
Correct : A. 1, 2 and 3
31. Which among the following conditions are necessary for the issue of writ of quo warranto? 1. The office must be public and must be created by a Statute or by the Constitution itself. 2. The office must be a substantive one and not merely the function or employment of a servant at the will and during the pleasure of another 3. There has been a contravention of the constitution or a Statutory Instrument, in appointing such person to that office. Select the correct answer using the code given below: [CDS 2012] Code:
Correct : D. 1, 2 and 3
32. Suppose a legislation was passed by the Parliament imposing certain restrictions onnewspapers. These included page ceiling, price and advertisements. The legislation is included in the Ninth Schedule to the Constitution of India. In this context, which one among the following statements is correct? [CDS 2012]
Correct : C. The legislation is invalid as it imposes unreasonable restrictions under Article 19(2) of the Constitution
33. Right to Information is [Asstt Commdt 2011]
Correct : A. fundamental right
34. Which of the following statements regarding the Fundamental Duties as contained in the Constitution of India is/are correct?
1. They can be enforced through writ jurisdiction.
2. They have formed a part of the Constitution since its adoption. 3. They are applicable only to citizens of India.
Select the correct answer using the code given below: [Asstt Commdt 2011]
Correct : D. 3 only
35. Which one among the following pairs is no correctly matched? [Asstt Commdt 2011]
Correct : B. Power of state legislature : Altering the name of the state
36. Which one among the following is not guaranteed by the Constitution of India? [CDS
2011]
Correct : C. Freedom to own, acquire and dispose of property anywhere in the country
37. Which of the following are envisaged as being part of the 'Right against Exploitation' in the Constitution of India? 1. Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour. 2. Abolition of untouchability. 3. Protection of the interests of the minorities. 4. Prohibition of employment of children in factories and mines. Select the correct answer using the code given below: [CDS 2011]
Correct : C. 1 and 4
38. The purpose of Directive Principles of State Policy is to [CDS 2011]
Correct : A. lay down positive instructions which would guide State Policy at all levels
39. In which case did the Supreme Court restore the primacy of the Fundamental Rights
over the Directive Principles of State Policy? [CPO SI 2010]
Correct : A. Golaknath Case
40. Which of the following rights conferred by the Constitution of India is also available to non-citizens? [BPSC 2011]
Correct : B. Freedom to speech
41. Which one of the following is a human right as well as a fundamental right under the
Constitution of India? [BPSC 2011]
Correct : C. Right to Education
42. Under the Constitution of India, which one of the following is not a fundamental duty? [CSAT 2011]
Correct : A. To vote in public elections
43. A government is federal or unitary on the basis of relations between the:
Correct : B. Centre and States
44. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. The territory of the units of the Indian federation may be altered by Parliament by a simple majority.
2. The consent of a State Legislature is necessary before Parliament redistributes its territory.
3. The President's recommendation is necessary for introducing in Parliament a Bill on redistributing territory of any State.
4. The President must receive the State's opinion before recommending a Bill on altering the name of the State.
Correct : D. I and III
45. Regarding equality before law, the Indian Constitution makes exceptions in the case of:
Correct : A. the President or a Governor
46. Censorship of the press:
Correct : B. has to be judged by the test of reasonableness
47. Freedom of speech and expression are restricted in the Constitution on grounds of
I. defamation II. contempt of court III. protecting a scheduled tribe IV. friendly relations with foreign states
Correct : D. I, II and IV
48. The right against exploitation prohibits children:
Correct : B. below 14 years of age from being employed in hazardous occupations
49. Which of the following comes under Right to Equality? 1. Non-discrimination by State on grounds of religion or race. 2. Equal protection of the laws. 3. Equal pay for equal work. 4. Equality of opportunity in matters of employment under the State.
Correct : D. I, II and IV
50. Which of the following can impose reasonable restrictions on the Fundamental Rights of the Indian citizens?
Correct : B. Parliament
51. The right to constitutional remedies in India is a vailable to :
Correct : B. all persons in case of infringement of any fundamental right
52. Which of the following rights are available to Indian citizens as well as foreigners residing in Indian territory ?
I. Cultural and Educational Rights. II. Right to Freedom of religion. III. Right against discrimination by the State on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth. IV. Right to personal liberty.
Correct : C. II and IV
53. Which of the following factors do not Explain why the rights included in Part III of the Constitution are called 'fundamental' ?
I. They are equally available to citizens and aliens. II. They are superior to ordinary law III. They are fundamental for governing the country. IV. They are not absolute.
Correct : C. I, III and IV
54. The Fundamental Right to ____ has been deleted by the ___ Amendment Act.
Correct : B. property; 44th
55. Which statement/s is/are not correct regarding the Fundamental Rights?
I. Some of these rights are not available to the Armed Forces. II. They are automatically suspended when any emergency is proclaimed by the President. III. The President alone can decide upon modifying their application to the Armed Forces. IV. They cannot be amended as they form a basic feature of the Constitution
Correct : B. II, III and IV
56. Which Article of the Constitution of India says, 'No child below the age of fourteen years shall be employed to work in any factory or mine or engaged in any other hazardous employment’? [IAS 2004]
Correct : A. Article 24
57. Consider the following statements: 2. The Article 20 of the Constitution of India lays down that no person shall be deprived of his life and personal liberty except according to procedure established by law. 3. The Article 21 of the Constitution of India states that no person can be convicted for any offence except for the violation of law in force at the time of the commission of the act charged as an offence. Which of these statements is/are correct? [CDS 2004]
Correct : D. Neither 1 nor 2
58. Separation of the Judiciary from the Executive is enjoined by :
Correct : B. Directive Principle
59. Which Article of the Constitution envisages free and compulsory education for children upto the age of 14 years? [Railways 1993]
Correct : A. Article 45
60. Which part of the Constitution deals with the Directive Principles of State Policy?
Correct : B. Part IV
61. Which of the following is not a Directive Principle of the State Policy? [CBI 1993]
Correct : B. To develop the scientific temper
62. Which of the following Directive Principles is based on Gandhian ideology?
Correct : D. Promotion of cottage industries
63. Which of the following cannot be termed 'Gandhian' among the Directive Principles?
Correct : D. Uniform civil code for the country
64. Which of the following is/are listed among the Directive Principles in Part IV? I. Equal pay for equal work. II. Uniform civil code. III. Small family norm IV. Education through mother tongue at primary level.
Correct : B. I and II
65. Which of the following were added to the Directive Principles by amendments to the Constitution? I. To protect and improve the environment and safeguard wild life. II. Right of workers to participate in management of industries. III. Right to work IV. To protect and maintain places of historic interest.
Correct : D. I and II
66. Which one of the following statements correctly describes the Fourth Schedule of theConstitution of India? [IAS 2004]
Correct : D. It allocates seats in the Council of States
67. The Twelfth Schedule of the Constitution:
Correct : B. contains subjects over which Municipalities may have control
68. The Ninth Schedule was added by the ______ Amendment.
Correct : A. First
69. In the Constitution of India, promotion of international peace and security is mentioned in the: [Asstt Comm 2008]
Correct : B. Directive Principles of State Policy
70. Which language is not recognised in the 8th Schedule though it is an official
language of a State?
Correct : A. English
71. Consider the following statements:
1. There are twelve Fundamental Duties laid down in the Constitution of India for every citizen of India.
2. There is no provision in the Constitution of India for direct enforcement of the Fundamental Duties.
3. One of the Fundamental Duties of every citizen of India is to cast his/her vote in general or State elections so as to maintain a vibrant democracy in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? [CDS 2005]
Correct : B. 2 only
72. In which one of the following does the subject of Co-operative Societies fall ?
[CDS 2005]
Correct : C. Concurrent List
73. With what subject do the Articles 5 to 8 of the Constitution of India deal? [CDS 2005]
Correct : B. Citizenship
74. Under which Article of the Constitution is the President's rule promulgated on any
State in India? [Bank PO 1994]
Correct : A. 356
75. A proclamation of emergency issued under Article 352 must be approved by the
Parliament within:
Correct : A. 1 month
76. The President's rule can be proclaimed in a State: [CDS 1994]
Correct : C. if the President, on receipt of a report from the Governor of the State, or otherwise, is satisfied that a situation has arisen in which the Government of the State cannot be carried on in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution
77. The Governor recommends to the President of India that breakdown of Constitutional machinery in the State is imminent. The President makes a proclamation under Article 356. The action of the President:
Correct : D. can be reviewed as it is malafide
78. Proclamation of emergency under Article 352, when Lok Sabha stands dissolved, has to be approved by :
Correct : A. Rajya Sabha and then will continue till the reconstitution of new Lok Sabha which must approve it within 30 days of its first sitting
79. The rule of passing resolution by 2/3rd majority of total number of members of the House of Parliament is applicable in the case of:
Correct : C. impeachment of President
80. Consider the following statements in respect of financial emergency under Article 360 of the Constitution of India:
1. A proclamation of financial emergency issued shall cease to operate at the expiration of two months unless before the expiration of that period it has been approved by the resolutions of both Houses of Parliament.
2. If any proclamation of financial emergency Is in operation. it is competent for the President of India to issue directions for the reduction of salaries and allowances of all or any class of persons serving in connection with the affairs of the Union but excluding the Judges of the Supreme Court and the High Courts. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? [IAS 2007]
Correct : A. 1 only
81. After approval by' both Houses of Parliament, the proclamation of emergency issued by
the President shall be valid:
Correct : C. for an indefinite period if both Houses of Parliament approves the proclamation after every six months
82. Every proclamation issued under Article 356 shall cease to operate at the expiration of:
Correct : B. two months unless before that period it has been approved by resolution of both Houses of Parliament
83. While a proclamation of emergency is in operation in the country, the State
Government:
Correct : A. cannot legislate
84. While a proclamation of emergency is in operation in the country under Article 352:
Correct : A. the Parliament is empowered under Article 250 to legislate with respect to any matter in the State List
85. Which is not a correct statement regarding financial emergency?
Correct : C. President can suspend the normal allocation of revenues
86. According to Article 164(1) of the Constitution of India, in three States there shall be a Minister in charge of tribal welfare who may in addition be in charge of the welfare of the Scheduled Castes and Backward Classes. Which one of the following States is not covered by the Article? [CDS 2009]
Correct : B. Punjab
87. Which Article of Indian Constitution prescribes Hindi in Devanagari script as the
official language of the Union?
Correct : C. 343
88. Which of the following Articles of Indian Constitution guarantees equal opportunities in
public employment to persons belonging to SC/ST and the other minority communities?
Correct : B. Article 16
89. Part V of the Constitution deals with:
I. Union Executive II. Parliament III. Supreme Court and High Courts IV. Comptroller and Auditor-General
Correct : D. I, II and IV
90. Provisions of the Constitution relating to the administration of scheduled areas and tribes in Schedule V :
Correct : D. may be altered by Parliament by ordinary legislation
91. Provisions of having a UPSC and Public Service Commision for States are enshrined in :
Correct : B. Part XIV, Chapter I, Articles 308-323
92. Which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India says that the executive power of every State shall be so exercised as not to impede or prejudice the exercise of the executive power of the Union? [IAS 2004]
Correct : A. Article 257
93. Article 340 of the Constitution of India provides for the appointment of a Commission
to investigate the conditions for the improvement of: [CDS 2004]
Correct : A. Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes
94. National Emergency has been declared so far:
Correct : C. thrice
95. The provision for Contingency Fund of India as well as for each State has been made
under:
Correct : A. Article 267
96. During a financial emergency, the President can:
1. ask the states to reduce the salaries arid allowances of all or any class of persons serving in connection with the affairs of the State
2. ask the states to reserve money bills passed by the state legislature for his consideration
3. issue directions to states on financial matters 4. issue directions for the reduction of salaries and allowances of persons serving in connection with the affairs of the Union
Correct : D. I, II, III and IV
97. National emergency can be declared by the President only I. on grounds of war II. on grounds of external aggression III. on grounds of internal disturbance IV. on the written recommendation of the Union Cabinet
Correct : D. I, II, III and IV
98. During a proclamation of emergency due to the breakdown of constitutional machinery in a State the President can I. assume all powers vested in and exercisable by the Governor II. declare that the powers of the State Legislature shall be exercised by Parliament III. assume certain powers of the High Courts IV. suspend by order any or all Fundamental Rights except those under Articles 20 and 21
Correct : A. I and II
99. When a financial emergency is proclaimed: [I. Tax 1994]
Correct : B. payment of salaries to public servants will be postponed
100. On the basis of financial crisis Emergency has been declared by the President of India: