1. A null hypothesis is rejected if the value of a test statistic lies in the:
Correct : A. Rejection region
2. The chi-square goodness-of-fit test can be used to test for:
Correct : C. normality
3. What do ANOVA calculate?
Correct : B. F ratios
4. To determine whether the test statistic of ANOVA is statistically significant, it can be
compared to a critical value. What two pieces of information are needed to determine the critical value?
Correct : A. Sample size, number of groups
5. In a study, subjects are randomly assigned to one of three groups: control, experimental A,
or experimental B. After treatment, the mean scores for the three groups are compared. The appropriate statistical test for comparing these means is:
Correct : D. the analysis of variance
6. If the F-Value calculated from the data is 0.9, the result is statistically significant
Correct : C. Never
7. Which statement is true of an experiment of factorial design?
Correct : C. Control over an independent variable is achieved by orthogonal variation with respect to the other independent variables.
8. What would the levels of the independent variables be for a two-way ANOVA investigating
the effect of four different treatments for depression and gender?
Correct : C. 4 and 2
9. In ANOVA, a factor is defined as the:
Correct : A. Dependent variable.
10. A 2 X 2 factorial design
Correct : B. Results in a four-cell matrix.
11. Which of the following distributions is suitable to model the length of time that elapses
before the first employee passes through the security door of a company?
Correct : A. Exponential
12. Smaller p-values indicate more evidence in support of:
Correct : B. the alternative hypothesis
13. Analysis of variance is a statistical method of comparing the ______________ of several
populations.
Correct : C. means
14. If the Mean Square Error MSE of an ANOVA for six treatment groups is known, you can
compute
Correct : C. the pooled standard deviation
15. In a study, subjects are randomly assigned to one of three groups: control, experimental A, or experimental B. After treatment, the mean scores for the three groups are compared. The appropriate statistical test for comparing these means is:
Correct : D. the analysis of variance
16. If the F-Value calculated from the data is 5.0, the result is statistically significant
Correct : B. Sometimes
17. What is the Effect of Memory (MIPS)?
Correct : B. 20
18. Which of these characterizes a factorial design?
Correct : D. Both B and C
19. What statistic is used to check the significance of the Kruskal-Wallis test?
Correct : D. Chi squared
20. What is the appropriate statistical test for a factorial design?
Correct : B. ANOVA
21. Give the F test for the interaction effect of factors A and B.
Correct : D. F = (MSAB)/MSE
22. The Kruskal-Wallis is based upon the ______________ test.
Correct : C. Mann Whitney
23. In a factorial experiments, we
Correct : C. test all possible combination of factor levels are tested
24. What is the Variation due to Memory?
Correct : B. 76%
25. In a factorial design, a(an) ______________ between independent variables indicates that
the effect of one independent variable is different at different levels of the other independent variable.
Correct : C. interaction
26. What is the Sum of Squares of the interaction (AB)?
Correct : D. 3.89
27. How many replicates of the experiment were performed?
Correct : C. 3 Replicates
28. You conduct a hypothesis test and you observe values for the sample mean and sample standard deviation when n = 25 that do not lead to the rejection of Ho (null hypothesis). You calculate a p-value of 0.0667. What will happen to the p-value if you observe the same sample mean and standard deviation for a sample n>25?
Correct : B. Decrease
29. What does a beta of 0.478 mean?
Correct : D. This means that for every unit increase in your independent variable, your dependent variable increases by 0.478 units
30. Which of the following points are not true when conducting a multiple regression?
Correct : A. Multiple regression can be used to assess quadratic relationships
31. Which of the following definitions is correct?
Correct : C. The sample space refers to all possible outcomes of an experiment.
32. The discrete random variable X has the probability function (k is a constant): Answer
question 8 - 10 based on the information given above. The value of k is:
Correct : B. 1/18
33. A larger standard deviation for a normal distribution with an unchanged mean indicates that
‘the distribution becomes:
Correct : B. flatter and wider
34. When the k population means are truly different from each other, it is likely that the average
error deviation:
Correct : B. Is relatively small compared to the average treatment deviations.
35. ______________ designs are research designs with more than one independent variable.
Correct : C. Factorial
36. What statistical procedure is used to assess the statistical significance of the main effects
and the interaction(s) in a factorial design?
Correct : D. analysis of variance
37. In a factorial design, a(an) ______________ between independent variables indicates that
the effect of one independent variable is different at different levels of the other independent variable.
Correct : C. interaction
38. Scatter diagrams show the relationship between:
Correct : A. Two variables
39. How would an interaction be indicated in a line graph? 2/5
Correct : B. as intersecting lines
40. What is the Effect of Cache (MIPS)?
Correct : C. 10
41. What is the Variation due to Interaction?
Correct : D. 5%
42. Dr. AB is designing a 3 x 7 factorial experiment. Which of the following is true about AB's study?
Correct : B. Dr. AB's study has 2 independent variables: one with 3 levels and one with 7 levels
43. How many levels were used for factor B?
Correct : C. 3 Levels
44. This means that for every unit increase in your independent variable, your dependent
variable increases b 0.478 units What degrees of freedom do you report in a multiple regression?
Correct : C. Regression and residual degrees of freedom
45. Our forecasted value of y is
Correct : B. 9
46. To determine whether the test statistic of ANOVA is statistically significant, it can be compared to a critical value. What two pieces of information are needed to determine the critical value?
Correct : A. Sample size, number of groups
47. The mean square is the sum of squares divided by
Correct : C. its corresponding degrees of freedom
48. Malcolm Baldrige national quality award is for (MBNQA)
Correct : A. Total Quality Management
49. Which of the following is responsible for quality objective?
Correct : A. Top level management
50. Service Assurance is
Correct : D. All of the above
51. Common elements of winners are
i. Senior management was actively involved ii. Control of overall process iii. Focus on customer The correct order is
Correct : C. i, ii & iii
52. For Cpk (Process capability index) value of 1.33, the PPM is
Correct : B. 63
53. Continual improvement is in
i. Environmental objective ii. Audit Result iii. Corrective action The correct order is
Correct : C. i, ii & iii
54. The process mapping is a ______________ diagram.
Correct : B. Work flow
55. By applying basic principle the process improvement will be in organizations
i. Focus on work process ii. Maintain self esteem of other iii. Tone initiative The correct order is
Correct : B. i & ii
56. Diamond represents ______________ while plotting flow chart.
Correct : B. Decision making
57. PP & PPK is calculated for
i. Initial production run ii. Future production iii. Initial process setting The correct order is
Correct : C. i & iii
58. According to Deming, Quality problems are
Correct : A. Due to management
59. Common features of CMM is how to produce software product which are
i. Consistence ii. Repeatable iii. Predictable The correct order is
Correct : D. i, ii & iii
60. While setting Quality objective, ______________ to be considered.
Correct : A. Customer need
61. When cpk is less than one
Correct : A. Process is not capable
62. ISO emphasis on
Correct : A. Prevention
63. While setting Quality objective, ______________ to be considered.
Correct : B. Customer need
64. The objective of ISO-9000 family of Quality management is
Correct : A. Customer satisfaction
65. Control chart is i. Process monitoring tool ii. Process control tool iii. Process planning tool The correct order is
Correct : B. i & ii
66. Employee should be involved in i. Decision making ii. Participation iii. Union The correct order is
Correct : A. i & ii
67. Does TQM approach have relevance to Indian industry in context to i. Customer satisfaction ii. People involvement iii. Policy management
The correct order is
Correct : B. i & ii
68. The following is (are) the machine down time.
Correct : D. All of the above
69. Special characteristic means i. Product characteristic which affect fit/ function / Regulation ii. Characteristic of product which are regulatory requirement iii. Characteristic in Specification The correct order is
Correct : B. i & ii
70. HRD at organizational level talks of
i. Organization’s manpower planning ii. Training iii. Performance appraisal The correct order is
Correct : D. i, ii & iii
71. Match the following
The correct order is
Correct : D. A-1, B-4, C-2, D-3
72. Benefit(s) of model based improvement is (are)
i. Establish common language ii. Models are comprehensive The correct order is
Correct : C. i & ii
73. Reliability of product means
i. Consistency of performance ii. Performance over period iii. Free of technical errors The correct order is
Correct : D. i, ii & iii
74. Which of the following is for Environment management?
Correct : B. ISO-14000
75. Rectangle represents ______________ While plotting flow chart.
Correct : A. Step in activity
76. ISO - 14001 gives stress on
Correct : D. All of the above
77. The customer requirement to be reviewed
i. Before supply of product ii. After supply of product iii. Before commitment of supply of product The correct order is
Correct : B. i & iii
78. Process evaluation is to identify
i. Validation of product ii. Potential failure prevention iii. Correctness of product The correct order is
Correct : C. ii & iii
79. Cause & Effect diagram used to
i. Identify & organize possible causes of problem ii. Identify possible causes of solution iii. Identify possible causes of problem & determining its relation The correct order is
Correct : B. i & iii
80. CIP is:
Correct : D. all of the above
81. Cost of quality includes:
Correct : D. all of the above
82. Cost of quality includes:
Correct : D. all of the above
83. Control chart theory is based on the differences of the causes of variations in quality. Variations in quality may be produced by assignable causes. All of the following are examples of assignable causes except:
Correct : D. None of the above (all are examples)
84. Which of the following statements about the cost of quality are true?
Correct : A. The cost of quality is the expense of nonconformance to requirements and specifications
85. In the project environment, the individual ultimately responsible for quality control
is:
Correct : D. The project manager who has ultimately responsibility for the entire project
86. Most quality problems
Correct : C. are the result of management's lack of attention to potential quality improvement ideas
87. Quality assurance is
Correct : C. actions to provide confidence of satisfying quality requirements
88. Quality planning is:
Correct : A. identifying which quality standards are relevant to the project and determining how to satisfy them
89. Which of the following best characterizes the results of an increase in quality?
Correct : A. increased productivity, increased cost effectiveness, and decreased cost risk
90. Which of the following best characterizes the results of an increase in quality?
Correct : A. increased productivity, increased costeffectiveness, and decreased cost risk
91. Random variance in a process, as measured by the standard deviation, can be
directly reduced by:
Correct : D. identifying patterns of variance using control charts
92. Poor quality in a design project is likely to directly affect ______________ costs.
Correct : D. A and C
93. The primary components of quality management are quality ______________.
Correct : B. philosophy, assurance, and control
94. Self-inspection by the individual performing the work is used to achieve quality in a
product. The advantages of self-inspection include ______________.
Correct : D. all of the above
95. Statistical sampling is a method to determine the conformance to requirement for
some element or product of a project. The advantage of statistical sampling is that it ______________.
Correct : C. does not require 100 percent sampling of the elements to achieve a satisfactory inference of the population
96. In a project, the common parameters are cost, schedule, and quality. In relationship
to the others, quality should be ranked ______________.
Correct : D. equal to cost and schedule
97. In computing the cost of producing a quality product, the major areas of costs contribute to the sale price of the product. The ratio of the ______________ costs determine whether an effective program is fully implemented.
Correct : D. prevention, appraisal, and failure
98. Recognition of personnel achievements is an important building block to the attainment of a superior quality program. The form of recognition should be ______________.
Correct : C. a non-monetary award presented in a public forum as soon as the deed is identified
99. Quality control includes inspections to ensure the standards of performance are
being met. Inspection includes ______________ examinations of ______________.
Correct : C. visual and technical; material and end products
100. Process control is distinct and separate from the data gathering function in a quality program. While process control regulates the functions, data gathering is used to ______________.
Correct : B. validate the controlling function as performing correctly and provide information on equipment servicing intervals