Quiznetik

Antennas and Microwave Engineering | Set 2

1. The frequency of oscillation in Gunn diode is given by:

Correct : A. vdom/ leff

2. In Gunn diode oscillator, the Gunn diode is inserted into a waveguide cavity formed by a short circuit termination at one end

Correct : A. true

3. In a Gunn diode oscillator, the electron drift velocity was found to be 107 cm/second and the effective length is 20 microns, then the intrinsic frequency is:

Correct : A. 5 ghz

4. The material used to fabricate IMPATT diodes is GaAs since they have the highest efficiency in all aspects.

Correct : B. false

5. 3 IMPATT DIODES, SCHOTTKY BARRIER DIODES, PIN DIODES

Correct : A. avalanche multiplication

6. To prevent an IMPATT diode from burning, a constant bias source is used to maintain                at safe limit.

Correct : A. average current

7. The number of semiconductor layers in IMPATT diode is:

Correct : C. four

8. The resonant frequency of an IMPATT diode is given by:

Correct : A. vd/2l

9. If the length of the intrinsic region in IMPATT diode is 2 µm and the carrier drift velocity are 107 cm/s, then the drift time of the carrier is:

Correct : B. 2×10-11 seconds

10. If the length of the intrinsic region in IMPATT diode is 2 µm and the carrier drift velocity are 107 cm/s, then the nominal frequency of the diode is:

Correct : B. 25 ghz

11. IMPATT diodes employ impact ionization technique which is a noisy mechanism of generating charge carriers.

Correct : A. true

12. An essential requirement for the BARITT diode is that the intermediate drift region be completely filled to cause the punch through to occur.

Correct : B. false

13. If the RMS peak current in an IMPATT diode is 700 mA and if DC input power is 6 watt, with the load resistance being equal to

Correct : B. 10.21 %

14. If the critical field in a Gunn diode oscillator is 3.2 KV/cm and effective length is 20 microns, then the critical voltage is:

Correct : B. 6.4 v

15. The production of power at higher frequencies is much simpler than production of power at low frequencies.

Correct : B. false

16. Microwave tubes are power sources themselves at higher frequencies and can be used independently without any other devices.

Correct : B. false

17. The klystron tube used in a klystron amplifier is a                    type beam amplifier.

Correct : A. linear beam

18. In crossed field tubes, the electron beam traverses the length of the tube and is parallel to the electric field.

Correct : B. false

19. is a single cavity klystron tube that operates as on oscillator by using a reflector electrode after the cavity.

Correct : B. reflex klystron

20. A major disadvantage of klystron amplifier is:

Correct : B. low bandwidth

21. In a                    oscillator, the RF wave travels along the helix from the collector towards the electron gun.

Correct : B. backward wave oscillator

22. Magnetrons are microwave devices that offer very high efficiencies of about 80%.

Correct : A. true

23. Klystron amplifiers have high noise output as compared to crossed field amplifiers.

Correct : B. false

24. is a microwave device in which the frequency of operation is determined by the biasing field strength.

Correct : B. gyratron

25. 2 IMPEDANCE MATCHING

Correct : A. swr, first voltage minimum

26. A modern device that replaces a slotted line is:

Correct : C. network analyzers

27. If SWR=1.5 with a wavelength of 4 cm and the distance between load and first minima is 1.48cm, then the reflection coefficient is:

Correct : A. 0.0126+j0.1996

28. High gain is not achievable at microwave frequencies using BJT amplifiers because:

Correct : C. ports are not matched at high frequencies

29. To flatten the gain response of a transistor:

Correct : D. give negative feedback to the amplifier

30. In conventional amplifiers, a flat gain response is achieved at the cost of reduced gain. But this drawback can be overcome by using:

Correct : A. balanced amplifiers

31. Bandwidth of balanced amplifier can be an octave or more, but is limited by the bandwidth of the coupler.

Correct : A. true

32. Coupler that is mostly used in balanced amplifiers to achieve the required performance is:

Correct : C. lange coupler

33. Distributed amplifiers offer very high

Correct : B. bandwidth

34. In distributed amplifiers, all the FET stages in the amplifier are connected in series to one another.

Correct : B. false

35. uses balanced input and output, meaning that there are 2 signal lines, with opposite polarity at each port.

Correct : A. differential amplifier

36. A major advantage of differential amplifiers is:

Correct : C. higher output voltage swing

37. Along with a differential amplifier, 1800 hybrid is used both at the input and output.

Correct : A. true

38. is a non linear circuit that converts DC power to an AC waveform of desired frequency based on the oscillator design.

Correct : C. oscillator

39. The transfer function of an RF oscillator is given by:

Correct : A. a/ (1-ah (ω))

40. The criterion on which oscillations are produced in the oscillator circuit is called:

Correct : B. barkhausen criteria

41. The necessary condition for oscillation in a Colpitts oscillator is:

Correct : A. c2/c1=gm/gi

42. Colpitts oscillator operating at 50 MHz has an inductor in the feedback section of value 0.10µH. then the values of the capacitors in the feedback section is:

Correct : A. 100 pf, 100 pf

43. An inductor is operating at frequency of 50 MHz. Its inductance is 0.1 µH, and then the series resistance associated with the inductor is: (Qo=100)

Correct : A. 0.31 Ω

44. Hartley oscillator has inductance values of 12 mH and 4 mH in the feedback section and a capacitor of 4 nF. Then the resonant frequency of the circuit is:

Correct : A. 19.89 khz

45. Colpitts oscillator in the feedback section has an inductance of 4 mH and capacitors of 12 nH and 4 nH. Then the resonant frequency of Colpitts oscillator is:

Correct : C. 45.9 khz

46. For Colpitts oscillator, the capacitors C1 and C2 in the feedback network are 1 µF and 25 µF respectively. Then the β value of the transistor is:

Correct : C. 25

47. Amplifier efficiency is the ratio of RF output power to DC input power. This parameter determines the performance of an amplifier.

Correct : A. true

48. is defined as the ratio of desired signal power to undesired noise power.

Correct : A. signal to noise ratio

49. is defined as the ratio of input signal to noise ratio to the output signal to noise ratio.

Correct : A. noise figure

50. The equivalent noise temperature of a network given the noise figure of the network or system is:

Correct : A. t0(f-1)

51. Noise figure can be defined for any microwave network irrespective of any other constraints.

Correct : B. false

52. Expression for noise of a two port network considering the noise due to transmission line and other lossy components is:

Correct : A. gktb + gnadded

53. Noise equivalent temperature of a 2 stage cascade network is given by:

Correct : A. te1 + te2/ g1

54. For a Wilkinson power divider of insertion loss L and the coupler is matched to the external circuitry, and then the gain of the coupler in terms of insertion loss is:

Correct : B. 1/2l

55. Noise equivalent temperature of Wilkinson coupler having a gain of 1/2L is given as:

Correct : A. t (2l-1)

56. Expression for over all noise figure of a mismatched amplifier is:

Correct : A. 1+ (f-1)/ (1 -│Г│2)

57. One condition to be satisfied in an oscillator circuit so that stable oscillations are produced is:

Correct : C. 1800 phase shift is required between the transistor input and output.

58. In an oscillator, the resonant feedback circuit must have must have a low Q in order to achieve stable oscillation.

Correct : B. false

59. Quartz crystal and tourmaline used in oscillators work on the principle of:

Correct : B. piezo electric effect

60. A quartz crystals equivalent circuit is a series LCR circuit and has a series resonant frequency.

Correct : B. false

61. In the plot of reactance v/s frequency of a crystal oscillator, the reactance between series resonant frequency and parallel resonant frequency is:

Correct : B. inductive

62. In the equivalent circuit of a quartz crystal, LCR arm has an inductance of 4 mH and capacitor has a value of 4nF, then the series resonant frequency of the oscillator is:

Correct : A. 0.25 mhz

63. Parallel resonant frequency of quartz crystal is given by:

Correct : A. 1/ √(lcₒc/(cₒ+c))

64. The equivalent circuit of a quartz crystal has LCR arm capacitance of 12nF and inductance of 3mH and parallel arm capacitance of 4nF. Parallel resonant frequency for the circuit is:

Correct : A. 3 mhz

65. In microwave oscillators, negative resistance transistors and diodes are used in order to generate oscillations in the circuit.

Correct : A. true

66. Any device with negative impedance as its characteristic property can be called:

Correct : A. energy source

67. In a microwave oscillator, a load of 50+50j is connected across a negative resistance device of impedance -50-50j. Steady state oscillation is not achieved in the oscillator.

Correct : B. false

68. For achieving steady state oscillation, the condition to be satisfied in terms of reflection coefficients is:

Correct : C. Гin=1/Гl

69. To achieve stable oscillation, Zin + ZL=0 is the only necessary and sufficient condition to be satisfied by the microwave oscillator.

Correct : B. false

70. In transistor oscillators, the requirement of a negative resistance device is satisfied using a varactor diode.

Correct : B. false

71. In transistor oscillators, FET and BJT are used. Instability is achieved by:

Correct : B. giving a positive feedback