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Software Project Management (SPM) | Set 4

1. How are final contracts signed in modern business?

Correct : A. e-signatures

2. Which tender allows anyone to submit a tender to supply the goods or services that are required?

Correct : C. open tendering

3. involves the preparation of tenders based on a typical or notional bill of quantities or schedule of works.

Correct : D. serial tendering

4. tendering is used when all the information necessary to calculate a realistic price is available when tendering commences.

Correct : A. single-stage

5. An invitation to tender might not include?

Correct : A. holiday packages

6. Mutual mistake occurs when both parties of a contract are mistaken as to the terms.

Correct : B. true

7. In Schedule contract the contractor undertakes the execution or construction of specific work with all its contingencies, to complete it in all respect within a specified time for a fixed amount.

Correct : A. false

8. Which of the following is not an effective software project management focus?

Correct : C. popularity

9. Interviews are conversations with

Correct : B. purpose

10. A job interview is a formal meeting between a job seeker and an employer.

Correct : A. true

11. All job interviews have the same objective.

Correct : A. true

12. Which kind of interview includes a process in which the employability of the job applicant is evaluated?

Correct : B. screening interview

13. How many styles are used in a screening interview?

Correct : A. two

14. In which of these interviews, insults are common?

Correct : B. stress interview

15. Which of these interviews is adapted for computer programmers?

Correct : D. the audition

16. In which of these, more than one candidate is interviewed?

Correct : C. the group interview

17. Which of these interviews is taken for a candidate far away?

Correct : B. telephone

18. Which of the following is the numerator of factor safety formula?

Correct : D. ultimate stress

19. Which of the following can be the factor of safety for a dead load?

Correct : C. 4

20. Which of the following can be the factor of safety for shock loading?

Correct : B. 13

21. Factor of safety is used to find out the reliability of the design.

Correct : A. true

22. What can understand by the factor of safety equal to one?

Correct : B. it means that the structure will only support the actual load

23. For which of the following design factor of safety the design will work properly?

Correct : C. 2

24. Design factor for most aircraft structures is 2.

Correct : B. false

25. Software Maintenance includes

Correct : D. all of the mentioned

26. The modification of the software to match changes in the ever changing environment, falls under which category of software maintenance?

Correct : B. adaptive

27. How many phases are there in Taute Maintenance Model?

Correct : C. eight

28. What type of software testing is generally used in Software Maintenance?

Correct : A. regression testing

29. Regression testing is a very expensive activity.

Correct : A. true

30. Selective retest techniques may be more economical than the “retest- all”technique.How many selective retest techniques are there?

Correct : B. three

31. Which selective retest technique selects every test case that causes a modified program to produce a different output than its original version?

Correct : C. safe

32. measures the ability of a regression test selection technique to handle realistic applications.

Correct : C. generality

33. Which regression test selection technique exposes faults caused by modifications?

Correct : D. inclusiveness

34. Why is Software architecture so important?

Correct : D. all of the mentioned

35. Why is software architecture called vehicle for stakeholder communication?

Correct : D. none of the mentioned

36. Which lines depict that architecture defines constraints on an implementation?

Correct : C. an implementation exhibits an architecture if it conforms to the structural decisions described by the architecture and the implementation must be divided into prescribed components

37. Why does architecture dictates organizational structure?

Correct : A. architecture describes the structure of the system being developed which becomes engraved in the development project structure

38. Which of the following is right dependence relationship?

Correct : C. modifiability depends on system’s modularization

39. Which of the following is correct for decisions made at life cycle level?

Correct : A. decisions at all level of like cycle from high level design to coding, implementation affect system quality

40. Is it possible to make quality predictions about a system based solely on evaluation of its architecture?

Correct : A. yes

41. Every possible architecture partition possible changes into which of the following categories?

Correct : D. all of the mentioned

42. Which change is accomplished by modifying a single component?

Correct : A. a local change

43. An architecture help in evolutionary prototyping in which of the following ways?

Correct : C. all of the mentioned

44. Which of the following are software structures?

Correct : D. all of the mentioned

45. Which structure describes units as abstraction of system’s functional requirements?

Correct : A. conceptual structure

46. Which structure’s view is orthogonal to the module and conceptual view?

Correct : B. process structure

47. Which structure’s view shows the mapping of software onto hardware?

Correct : C. physical structure

48. Which structure describes units are programs or module?

Correct : D. control flow

49. Which of the following subject area deals with pay-as-you-go usage model?

Correct : A. accounting management

50. Point out the correct statement.

Correct : B. cloud computing vendors run very reliable networks

51. captive requires that the cloud accommodate multiple compliance regimes.

Correct : B. policy-based

52. Security methods such as private encryption, VLANs and firewalls comes under                      subject area.

Correct : C. data privacy

53. Which of the following captive area deals with monitoring?

Correct : B. variable but under control

54. The reputation for cloud computing services for the quality of those services is shared by

Correct : C. tenants

55. Cloud                  are standardized in order to appeal to the majority of its audience.

Correct : B. slas

56. is a function of the particular enterprise and application in an on- premises deployment.

Correct : B. vendor lock-in

57. Which of these is the external sounds present in the channels of communication?

Correct : A. noise

58. 12 COMMUNICATION PLANS

Correct : B. planning

59. are problems arising from expression.

Correct : B. semantic problems

60. Both encoding and decoding of message are influenced by our emotions.

Correct : A. true

61. In which of these problems, is the actual message lost in the abundance of transmitted information?

Correct : B. over communication

62. Communication should serve as a conflict- reduction exercise.

Correct : A. true

63. means to impart understanding of the message.

Correct : C. decoding

64. When is the communication process complete?

Correct : D. when the receiver understands the message.

65. is the first enemy of communication.

Correct : A. noise

66. Which of these must be avoided for effective communication?

Correct : C. ambiguity

67. Which of these is not a commandment of effective communication?

Correct : B. listen poorly