1. According to the time estimates made by the PERT planners, the maximum time that would be needed to complete an activity is called as
Correct : C. pessimistic time estimate
2. In a network, a critical path is the time- wise shortest path.
Correct : B. false
3. The difference between the maximum time available and the actual time needed to perform an activity is known as
Correct : C. total float
4. A randomized algorithm uses random bits as input inorder to achieve a good performance over all possible choice of random bits.
Correct : C. average case
5. Which of the following are probalistic algorithms?
Correct : D. all of the mentioned
6. Which of the following algorithms are probably correct as well as fast?
Correct : C. atlantic city algorithm
7. Prisonner’s dilemma can be related to the following:
Correct : A. cooperative behaviour
8. Unix sort command uses as its sorting technique.
Correct : A. quick sort
9. Which of the following can be solved in computer science?
Correct : D. all of the mentioned
10. Which of the following can be referred to as applications of Randomized algorithm?
Correct : D. all of the mentioned
11. What is the popular method of organizing wireless network topologies?
Correct : D. cluster
12. will enable the humans to access, control and manage the operation.
Correct : A. iot
13. In the embedded devices and objects working under IoT are resource constrained.
Correct : D. information system
14. What type of networks is interacting under IoT?
Correct : A. heterogeneous only
15. Managing of resources can be done by implementing
Correct : D. protocols and algorithms
16. Resource management will elaborate the key aspects of
Correct : C. network management
17. Which of the following is the future application of IoT?
Correct : A. role of green iot system
18. Resource management includes
Correct : B. iot cloud
19. What is the role of communication protocol in IoT?
Correct : C. mac layer issue
20. Which will reduce the energy expenditure?
Correct : A. clustering
21. Synchronization techniques will be necessary to address the various challenges of harmonising.
Correct : B. true
22. Architectural design is a creative process satisfying only functional-requirements of a system.
Correct : B. false
23. A view shows the system hardware and how software components are distributed across the processors in the system.
Correct : A. physical
24. The UML was designed for describing
Correct : D. both object-oriented systems and architectural design
25. Which of the following is an architectural conflict?
Correct : D. all of the mentioned
26. Which of the following is not included in Architectural design decisions?
Correct : D. testing the system
27. Architecture once established can be applied to other products as well.
Correct : B. false
28. Which of the following pattern is the basis of interaction management in many web- based systems?
Correct : C. model-view-controller
29. What describes how a set of interacting components can share data?
Correct : C. repository pattern
30. Which view in architectural design shows the key abstractions in the system as objects or object classes?
Correct : C. logical
31. Which of the following is a type of Architectural Model?
Correct : D. all of the mentioned
32. Why is decomposition technique required?
Correct : C. all of the mentioned
33. Cost and effort estimation of a software uses only one forms of decomposition, either decomposition of the problem or decomposition of the process.
Correct : B. false
34. If a Direct approach to software project sizing is taken, size can be measured in
Correct : A. loc
35. Which software project sizing approach develop estimates of the information domain characteristics?
Correct : A. function point sizing
36. How many forms exists of Barry Boehm’s COCOMO Model?
Correct : B. three
37. Who suggested the four different approaches to the sizing problem?
Correct : D. putnam and myers
38. In many cases, it is often more cost- effective to acquire, rather than develop, computer software.
Correct : A. true
39. A make-buy decision is based on whether
Correct : D. all of the mentioned
40. Which of the following is not one of the five information domain characteristics of Function Point (FP) decomposition?
Correct : C. external process
41. The project planner must reconcile the estimates based on decomposition techniques to produce a single estimate of effort.
Correct : B. false
42. Programming language experience is a part of which factor of COCOMO cost drivers?
Correct : A. personnel factor
43. If an Indirect approach is taken, then the sizing approach is represented as
Correct : B. fp
44. Project management involves the planning, monitoring, and control of the people, process, and events that occur as software evolves from a preliminary concept to an operational implementation.
Correct : A. true
45. 2 COLLECTION OF DATA
Correct : C. popularity
46. PM-CMM stands for
Correct : A. people management capability maturity model
47. Which of the following is not a project manager’s activity?
Correct : D. project design
48. A software provides the framework from which a comprehensive plan for software development can be established.
Correct : C. process
49. Who defines the business issues that often have significant influence on the project?
Correct : C. senior managers
50. Who delivers the technical skills that are necessary to engineer a product or an application?
Correct : A. practitioners
51. Which of the following paradigm attempts to structure a team in a manner that achieves some of the controls associated with the closed paradigm but also much of the innovation that occurs when using the random paradigm?
Correct : B. open paradigm
52. Which of the following is a people- intensive activity?
Correct : D. project management
53. Which paradigm structures a team loosely and depends on individual initiative of the team members?
Correct : D. synchronous paradigm
54. Which of the following is not an approach to software cost estimation?
Correct : D. critical
55. Which paradigm relies on the natural compartmentalization of a problem and organizes team members to work on pieces of the problem with little active communication among themselves?
Correct : C. closed paradigm
56. Who interacts with the software once it is released for production use?
Correct : A. end-users
57. Which of the following is not an effective project manager trait?
Correct : D. none of the mentioned
58. Which type of software engineering team has a defined leader who coordinates specific tasks and secondary leaders that have responsibility for sub tasks?
Correct : A. controlled decentralized (cd)
59. Commitments to unrealistic time and resource estimates may result in
Correct : D. all of the mentioned
60. Which software engineering team has no permanent leader?
Correct : B. democratic decentralized (dd)
61. Which of the following is not a project factor that should be considered when planning the structure of software engineering teams?
Correct : C. the degree of sociability required for the project
62. Which of the following is a collection of project coordination technique?
Correct : D. all of the mentioned
63. Which activity sits at the core of software requirements analysis?
Correct : D. all of the mentioned
64. Which of the following is not a sign that indicates that an information systems project is in jeopardy?
Correct : C. sponsorship is gained
65. SPMP stands for
Correct : B. software project management plan
66. Which of the following categories is part of the output of software process?
Correct : D. all of the mentioned
67. 4 COST MONITORING
Correct : A. baselines
68. Software Configuration Management can be administered in several ways. These include
Correct : A. a single software configuration management team for the whole organization
69. What combines procedures and tools to manage different versions of configuration objects that are created during the software process?
Correct : B. version control
70. What complements the formal technical review by assessing a configuration object for characteristics that are generally not considered during review?
Correct : A. software configuration audit
71. Which of the following is the process of assembling program components, data, and libraries, and then compiling and linking these to create an executable system?
Correct : A. system building
72. Which of the following option is not tracked by configuration management tools?
Correct : D. none of the mentioned
73. Which of the following is not a Software Configuration Management Activity?
Correct : B. risk management
74. The definition and use of configuration management standards is essential for quality certification in
Correct : D. all of the mentioned
75. What involves preparing software for external release and keeping track of the system versions that have been released for customer use?
Correct : B. release management
76. Which of the following process ensures that versions of systems and components are recorded and maintained?
Correct : B. configuration control
77. Which of the following process is concerned with analyzing the costs and benefits of proposed changes?
Correct : A. change management
78. Which of the following is not a Version management feature?
Correct : B. build script generation
79. Which method recommends that very frequent system builds should be carried out with automated testing to discover software problems?
Correct : A. agile method
80. Which of the following is not a build system feature?
Correct : C. storage management
81. Which of the following is a configuration item?
Correct : D. all of the mentioned
82. Which of the following is a part of system release?
Correct : D. all of the mentioned
83. A sequence of baselines representing different versions of a system is known as
Correct : B. mainline
84. “Robustness” answers which of the following description?
Correct : D. process continues in spite of unexpected problems
85. Process improvement is the set of activities, methods, and transformations that developers use to develop and maintain information systems.
Correct : B. false
86. How many stages are there in process improvement?
Correct : A. three
87. In which stage of process improvement bottlenecks and weaknesses are identified?
Correct : B. process analysis
88. Prototypes and 4GL business systems are categorized under which process?
Correct : A. informal
89. The documentation of a process which records the tasks, the roles and the entities used is called
Correct : C. process modelling
90. It is always best to start process analysis with a new test model.
Correct : B. false
91. What is a tangible output of an activity that is predicted in a project plan?
Correct : A. deliverable
92. What is often undefined and is left to the ingenuity of the project managers and engineers?
Correct : B. exception
93. Which of the following is not a part of process change?
Correct : B. introducing new team members to existing project
94. The Capability Maturity Model (CMM) is a continuous model.
Correct : B. false
95. The CMMI assessment is based on a x- point scale. What is the value of x?
Correct : D. 6
96. CM is about managing the different items in the product, and changes in them.
Correct : A. true
97. Which is a software configuration management concept that helps us to control change without seriously impeding justifiable change?
Correct : A. baselines
98. A voluntary arrangement between two or more parties that is enforceable by law as a binding legal agreement is known as
Correct : C. contract
99. What is the type of mistake which occurs when only one party to a contract is mistaken as to the terms or subject-matter?
Correct : B. unilateral mistake
100. contract is one that has automatic renewals until one party requests termination.