1. Incremental development in Extreme Programming (XP) is supported through a system release once every month.
Correct : B. false
2. In XP, as soon as the work on a task is complete, it is integrated into the whole system.
Correct : A. true
3. In XP Increments are delivered to customers every weeks.
Correct : B. two
4. Is a customer involved test development and validation in XP ?
Correct : C. it may vary from customer to customer
5. Programmers prefer programming to testing and sometimes they take shortcuts when writing tests. For example, they may write incomplete tests that do not check for all possible exceptions that may occur.
Correct : A. true
6. Tests are automated in Extreme Programming.
Correct : A. true
7. In XP an automated unit test framework is used to write tests for a new piece of functionality before that functionality itself is implemented.
Correct : A. true
8. Developers work individually on a release and they compare their results with other developers before forwarding that release to customers.
Correct : B. false
9. Which four framework activities are found in the Extreme Programming(XP) ?
Correct : C. planning, design, coding, testing
10. Which process can be affected by other processes executing in the system?
Correct : A. cooperating process
11. When several processes access the same data concurrently and the outcome of the execution depends on the particular order in which the access takes place, is called?
Correct : B. race condition
12. If a process is executing in its critical section, then no other processes can be executing in their critical section. This condition is called?
Correct : A. mutual exclusion
13. Which one of the following is a synchronization tool?
Correct : C. semaphore
14. A semaphore is a shared integer variable
Correct : A. that can not drop below zero
15. Mutual exclusion can be provided by the
Correct : C. both mutex locks and binary semaphores
16. When high priority task is indirectly preempted by medium priority task effectively inverting the relative priority of the two tasks, the scenario is called
Correct : A. priority inversion
17. Process synchronization can be done on
Correct : C. both hardware and software level
18. 7 INTERACTIVE PROCESSES
Correct : D. all of the mentioned
19. To enable a process to wait within the monitor
Correct : A. a condition variable must be declared as condition
20. Which of the following are parameters involved in computing the total cost of a software development project?
Correct : D. all of the mentioned
21. Which of the following costs is not part of the total effort cost?
Correct : C. costs of lunch time food
22. What is related to the overall functionality of the delivered software?
Correct : A. function-related metrics
23. A is developed using historical cost information that relates some software metric to the project cost.
Correct : A. algorithmic cost modelling
24. It is often difficult to estimate size at an early stage in a project when only a specification is available
Correct : A. true
25. Which technique is applicable when other projects in the same analogy application domain have been completed?
Correct : C. estimation by analogy
26. Which model assumes that systems are created from reusable components, scripting or database programming?
Correct : A. an application-composition model
27. Which of the following states that work expands to fill the time available.
Correct : C. parkinson’s law
28. Which model is used during early stages of the system design after the requirements have been established?
Correct : D. an early design model
29. Which model is used to compute the effort required to integrate reusable components or program code that is automatically generated by design or program translation tools?
Correct : C. a reuse model
30. The COCOMO model takes into account different approaches to software development, reuse, etc.
Correct : B. false
31. Which of the following is not a metric for design model?
Correct : D. complexity metrics
32. Statement and branch coverage metrics are part of
Correct : B. testing
33. Function Points in software engineering was first proposed by
Correct : C. albrecht
34. How many Information Domain Values are used for Function Point Computation?
Correct : C. five
35. Function Point Computation is given by the formula
Correct : B. fp = count total * [0.65 + 0.01 * sum(fi)].
36. Structural complexity of a module i is given as S(i) = f*f (i). What does f symbolizes here?
Correct : D. “fan out” of module i
37. SMI stands for
Correct : B. software maturity index
38. As the SMI approaches 1.0, the software product starts becoming unstable
Correct : B. false
39. SMI = [Mt – (Fa + Fc + Fd)]/Mt. Here Mt is the number of modules
Correct : A. in the current release
40. The amount of time that the software is available for use is known as
Correct : A. reliability
41. Usability in metric analysis is defined as the degree to which the software
Correct : B. is easy to use
42. Which of the following is the reason that software is delivered late?
Correct : D. all of the mentioned
43. Which of the following is an activity that distributes estimated effort across the planned project duration by allocating the effort to specific software engineering tasks?
Correct : B. software project scheduling
44. Every task that is scheduled should be assigned to a specific team member is termed as
Correct : C. defined responsibilities
45. What is a collection of software engineering work tasks, milestones, and deliverables that must be accomplished to complete a particular project?
Correct : A. task set
46. Ensuring that no more than the allocated number of people are allocated at any given time in Software Scheduling is known as
Correct : B. effort validation
47. What is used to determine the recommended degree of rigor with which the software process should be applied on a project?
Correct : B. adaptation criteria
48. What evaluates the risk associated with the technology to be implemented as part of project scope?
Correct : B. preliminary concept planning
49. Which of the following is not an adaptation criteria for software projects?
Correct : B. customers complaints
50. Which of the following is a project scheduling method that can be applied to software development?
Correct : D. both pert and cpm
51. A technique for performing quantitative analysis of progress is known as
Correct : B. eva
52. What is the recommended distribution of effort for a project?
Correct : A. 40-20-40
53. A project usually has a timeline chart which was developed by
Correct : A. henry gantt
54. Round robin scheduling falls under the category of
Correct : B. preemptive scheduling
55. With round robin scheduling algorithm in a time shared system
Correct : A. using very large time slices converts it into first come first served scheduling algorithm
56. The portion of the process scheduler in an operating system that dispatches processes is concerned with
Correct : A. assigning ready processes to cpu
57. What is FIFO algorithm?
Correct : B. first executes the job that came in first in the queue
58. The strategy of making processes that are logically runnable to be temporarily suspended is called
Correct : B. preemptive scheduling
59. What is Scheduling?
Correct : A. allowing a job to use the processor
60. There are 10 different processes running on a workstation. Idle processes are waiting for an input event in the input queue. Busy processes are scheduled with the Round- Robin time sharing method. Which out of the following quantum times is the best value for small response times, if the processes have a short runtime, e.g. less than 10ms?
Correct : A. tq = 15ms
61. Orders are processed in the sequence they arrive if rule sequences the jobs.
Correct : C. first come, first served
62. Which of the following algorithms tends to minimize the process flow time?
Correct : B. shortest job first
63. Under multiprogramming, turnaround time for short jobs is usually and that for long jobs is slightly
Correct : B. shortened; lengthened
64. OSI stands for
Correct : A. open system interconnection
65. The number of layers in ISO OSI reference model is
Correct : D. 7
66. TCP/IP model does not have layer but OSI model have this layer.
Correct : A. session layer
67. Which layer is used to link the network support layers and user support layers?
Correct : C. transport layer
68. Which address is used on the internet for employing the TCP/IP protocols?
Correct : D. all of the mentioned
69. TCP/IP model was developed the OSI model.
Correct : A. prior to
70. Which layer provides the services to user?
Correct : A. application layer
71. Which of the following term describes testing?
Correct : B. evaluating deliverable to find errors
72. What is Cyclomatic complexity?
Correct : B. white box testing
73. Lower and upper limits are present in which chart?
Correct : A. run chart
74. Maintenance testing is performed using which methodology?
Correct : C. breadth test and depth test
75. White Box techniques are also classified as
Correct : B. structural testing
76. Exhaustive testing is
Correct : C. impractical but possible
77. Which of the following is/are White box technique?
Correct : D. all of the mentioned
78. What are the various Testing Levels?
Correct : D. all of the mentioned
79. Boundary value analysis belong to?
Correct : B. black box testing
80. Alpha testing is done at
Correct : A. developer’s end
81. What is the main purpose of hazard identification?
Correct : C. to characterize adverse effect of toxins
82. The process determines whether exposure to a chemical can increase the incidence of adverse health effect.
Correct : A. hazard identification
83. Which of the following data is not required for hazard identification?
Correct : D. estimation of risk
84. Hazard is defined as the probability of suffering harm or loss.
Correct : B. false
85. Why does site history have to be considered for hazard identification?
Correct : C. to know the probable source and causes of contamination on site
86. What is the main objective of risk assessment?
Correct : A. to evaluate hazard and minimize the risks
87. What is the first stage of risk assessment?
Correct : B. hazard identification
88. The purpose of risk management is to identify potential problems before they occur so that risk-handling activities may be planned.
Correct : B. true
89. Hazard identification mainly focus on
Correct : A. chemical source and concentration
90. Hazard is defined as the probability of suffering harm or loss.
Correct : B. false
91. An incident can be called hazardous only when?
Correct : A. stressor has the potential to cause harm to humans and ecological systems
92. Which of the following is not a phase of project management?
Correct : D. project being
93. Who introduced the bar charts?
Correct : B. henry gantt
94. Bar charts were modified later to obtain the milestone charts.
Correct : A. true
95. The full form of PERT is
Correct : D. program evaluation and review technique
96. The full form of CPM is
Correct : A. critical path method
97. In bar charts, which colour is used to show the actual progress?
Correct : D. green
98. A PERT network is activity-oriented while a CPM network is event-oriented.
Correct : B. false
99. are used to represent activity in a network diagram.
Correct : D. arrows
100. The shortest possible time in which an activity can be achieved under ideal circumstances is known as