Quiznetik

Penology Treatment of Offenders | Set 1

1. The Supreme Court of India is the highest court constituted by

Correct : C. the constitution

2. Which Articles of Indian Constitution lay down composition & jurisdiction of the Supreme Court?

Correct : B. article 32

3. The Supreme Court has …… jurisdiction

Correct : D. all the above

4. Constitution has given extensive original jurisdiction to SC to enforce FundamentalRights under

Correct : A. article 32

5. Besides the High Courts, in every State, what are some other classes of Criminal Courts?

Correct : D. all the above

6. The Gram Nyayalaya can exercise

Correct : C. both civil and criminal jurisdiction

7. The Code of Criminal Procedure (1973) provides for Plea Bargaining in

Correct : D. sections 265 a to 265l

8. The Report of Law Commission of India (144th) refers plea bargaining to

Correct : C. both (a) & (b)

9. The provision of plea bargaining was incorporated in the Criminal Procedure Code (1973) in the year

Correct : A. 2005

10. The provision of plea bargainingcame into force in India in the year

Correct : C. 2006

11. The word Penology is derived from the Latin word….. meaning ‘punishment’

Correct : A. poena

12. Penology owes its origin to

Correct : A. cesare beccaria

13. Penology is Branch of criminology dealing with

Correct : C. both (a) & (b)

14. The term Penology was coined in 1834 by a German American ____ to denote a system of administrating punishment to the convicted offenders

Correct : A. francis lieber

15. Penology is ______ which aims to study & evaluate the applications of penal sanctions to wrongdoers.

Correct : D. both (a) & (b)

16. Punishing the offenders is a primary function of all civil States in order to maintain peace and order in the society

Correct : A. true

17. Punishment is basically used with the intent to

Correct : D. all the above

18. Emanuel Kant was one of the supporter of

Correct : A. retributive theory of punishment

19. The Retributive theory of Punishment is based on the principle of

Correct : D. all of the above

20. Emanuel Kant considers punishment as

Correct : C. an end in itself

21. Supreme Court in _____ has laid down that ‘an eye for an eye is neither proper nor desirable’

Correct : C. sk. ishaq v. state of bihar

22. The Retributive theory of Punishment is criticized for

Correct : D. all the above

23. Utilitarian Prevention theory justifies punishment to

Correct : A. deter people from committing the crime

24. Utilitarian Prevention/ Deterrence theory is based on principle of hedonism as proposed by

Correct : B. jeremy bentham

25. The Supreme Court in ______ has observed that ‘protection of society and deterring the criminal are avowed objects of law and that is required to be achieved by imposing an appropriate punishment.’

Correct : C. state of karnataka v. krishnappa

26. Bentham’s contribution through Utilitarian Prevention/ Deterrence has been that

Correct : A. it provided opportunity for reformation

27. The preventive theory seeks to prevent the repetition of crime by

Correct : D. all the above

28. Development of modern prison institutions are the contributions of

Correct : C. behavioural prevention: incapacitation

29. Reformative theory is praised for its contribution like

Correct : D. all the above

30. In _______penal system, the ruler was expected to be well versed in Rajdharma which included the idea of Karma and Dand.

Correct : A. ancient

31. During the medieval period, ________rulers introduced their own penal laws in India

Correct : A. the muslim

32. The Muslim law arranged punishments for various offences into

Correct : C. four main categories (qisas, diya, hadd and tazeer)

33. The Supreme Court in_______ struck down Section 303 of the Indian Penal Code, which provided for mandatory death punishment for offenders serving life sentence.

Correct : A. mithu v. state of punjab

34. Justice Krishna Iyer in _____ observed that “corporal death is alien to fundamental rights”.

Correct : A. rajendra prasad v. state of up

35. In Mithu v. State of Punjab, Justice Y. V. Chandrachud observed that section 303 of IPC

Correct : C. violated both article 14 & 21

36. The doctrine of death penalty for ‘rarest of rare case’ was used by SC in

Correct : B. bacchan singh v. state of punjab

37. The Supreme Court of India has held the constitutional validity of Capital Punishment in

Correct : A. jagmohan singh v. state of up

38. The Law Commission of India in 1967 recommended

Correct : A. the retention of death penalty

39. The SC in _____ held that a delay of eight years in the disposal of mercy petition would be sufficient to justify commutation of death sentence to life imprisonment.

Correct : A. madhu mehta v. union of india

40. The most comprehensive study of the prison administration in all its aspects in India was done by the Indian Jails Committee in

Correct : B. 1919-20

41. Government of India set up the All India Jail Manual Committee in

Correct : A. 1956

42. The Model Prison Rules were prepared by the Committee in

Correct : D. 1959

43. Justice A. N. Mulla Committee of Jail Reforms has suggested setting up of _____ for modernization of prison in India

Correct : A. national prison commission

44. Who defined crime as the intentional Act in violation of the criminal law and penalized by the state

Correct : A. paul tappan

45. A police officer or probation officer is best described as a

Correct : C. criminal justice professional

46. Which theory sets an example for others?

Correct : B. deterrent

47. The capital punishment pertains to which theory.

Correct : B. retributive

48. Which theory is the most humanitarian?

Correct : C. reformative

49. Which theory believes that the criminal is punished for his own good?

Correct : A. preventive

50. Under the probation of Offender Act, Probation is granted mostly

Correct : B. first offenders

51. Author of the book, ‘Essay on Crimes and Punishment’, is ______.

Correct : B. cesare beccaria

52. Under the probation of Offender Act pre-sentence report is _______.

Correct : C. preferable

53. The spirit of parole or pre-mature release is ________. (i) Reformation and Rehabilitation (ii) Saving for public exchequer (iii) Utilization of family and community resources (iv) Concession to the wrong-doer Find the correct combination using the codes given below:

Correct : A. (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct.

54. Which of the following pairs is correctly matched?

Correct : B. children’s home – for children in need of care and protection

55. Which is the administrative authority controlling the Child Welfare Committee?

Correct : C. social welfare department

56. Central Jails are mainly meant for

Correct : C. convict prisoners

57. According to the Indian Penal Code, how many types of Punishments can be awarded to an offender?

Correct : B. 5

58. Among the following experts, which person visited India in early1950’s, to study the Indian prisoners?

Correct : D. walter c. reckless

59. The first regular open prison in India was established in

Correct : C. andhra pradesh

60. A model of criminal punishment that encourages rehabilitation via the use of general and relatively unspecified surface is known as

Correct : C. indeterminate sentencing

61. Who first introduced probation service for offenders?

Correct : C. john augustus

62. The purpose of punishment is (i) Incapacitation (ii) Deterrence (iii) Reformation (iv) Discrimination Choose the correct combination, using the code

Correct : A. (i), (ii) & (iii) are correct.

63. Arrange the following concepts in the order in which they evolved:(i) Reformation(ii) Retribution(iii) Deterrence(iv) Reintegration Codes :

Correct : B. (ii), (iii), (i), (iv)

64. The Public Prosecutors are appointed by

Correct : D. state government

65. The process whereby newly admitted prisoners come to accept prison lifestyles and sometimes criminal values is called _______.

Correct : D. prisonization

66. Probation and parole

Correct : D. are distinctly different forms of community correction administered by different authorities

67. A sentencing alternative that requires offenders to spend at least a part of their time working for a community agency is called ________.

Correct : D. community service

68. A Court order in response to a violation of conditions of probation, taking away a person’s probationary status, thereby withdrawing the freedom is called ________.

Correct : C. probation revocation

69. According to the protection of Human Rights Act, 1993, who is appointed chairperson of the State Human Rights Commission?

Correct : D. former chief justice of high court

70. Which among the following is not a right of prisoners?

Correct : D. right to vote

71. Which among the following courts is at the top of hierarchy?

Correct : D. chief judicial magistrate

72. Which one of the following is a writ?

Correct : C. mandamus

73. The intentional making of a false statement as part of the testimony by a sworn witness in judicial proceedings is called ________.

Correct : C. perjury

74. Pre-sentence report is required to release an offender on

Correct : C. probation

75. In India, what punishment can be awarded to those below eighteen years of age and found guilty of homicide?

Correct : A. detention for three years

76. In which state was first open-air camp or jail set up in India?

Correct : D. uttar pradesh

77. Which country first started probation to offenders?

Correct : D. united states of america

78. Who is competent to commute death penalty to life imprisonment?

Correct : D. president of india

79. Borstal School is meant for

Correct : B. adolescent offenders

80. Probation is

Correct : C. suspended sentencing

81. An approach to punishment which stresses the importance of crime prevention through incarceration/imprisonment is known as

Correct : A. incapacitation

82. “Penal populism” is the term refers to

Correct : B. growing politicisation of crime control

83. The process whereby the parties in a particular offence come together to resolve collectively is known as

Correct : D. restorative justice

84. Which committee examined the after care programmes in prison?

Correct : B. gore committee

85. Which authority grants prisoners admission to open-air jail?

Correct : C. jail authorities

86. Which country among the following does not award death penalty to offenders?

Correct : B. united kingdom

87. Under which law in India, probation to offenders cannot be granted?

Correct : C. n.d.p.s. act

88. Which authority approves or grants “temporary release” to jail inmates?

Correct : D. jail authority

89. Parole or premature release is granted by which authority ?

Correct : D. parole committee/board

90. Which type of prisoners are admitted to open air jails?

Correct : C. prisoners who have completed a portion of their term

91. Reduction in sentence in prison administration is called

Correct : A. remission

92. Open air jails are setup under what philosophy ?

Correct : C. reformation of prisoners

93. Under the Probation of Offenders Act, Pre-sentence Report is prepared by

Correct : C. probation officer

94. ‘The act of taking revenge upon a criminal perpetrator’ is known as :

Correct : D. retribution

95. Incarcerating serious offenders and dealing with minor offenders in less restrictive ways is known as

Correct : B. selective incapacitation

96. Identify the correct order in which a case proceeds in the criminal justice system ?

Correct : D. investigation, chargesheet, trial, judgement

97. The main purpose of releasing an offender on probation is I. Reformation and Rehabilitation II. Concession to the wrong–doer III. Saving of public exchequer IV. Utilization of family and community resources Find the correct combination using the codes given below : Codes :

Correct : C. i, iii and iv are correct

98. What is the main law dealing with prisons in India ?

Correct : C. the prisons act