1. International Labour Organization is an agency of _________.
Correct : D. united nations
2. Which of these is an unfair labour practice on part of the employer?
Correct : D. none of the above
3. Headquarters of International Labour Organisation is located in ________
Correct : A. geneva
4. The ongoing globalization in the country needs reforms in our labour laws. The forces oppose changes in the existing
labour legislations is _______________.
Correct : B. labour and trade unions
5. Agency of United Nations which deals with international labour standards and providing social protection and working
opportunities is ______________
Correct : D. international labour organisation
6. Labour Policy highlights ________
Correct : D. all of the above
7. _______________ was established as an agency of the League of Nations following the Treaty of Versailles.
Correct : B. ilo
8. Two broad categories of labour law.
Correct : C. both (a) and (b)
9. India is permanent member of ILO Governing Body since _______________.
Correct : A. 1922
10. Which of the following legislations apply to unorganised sector workers in India?
Correct : D. all of the above
11. ILO overarching goal is _______________.
Correct : D. decent work
12. India a _______________ member of ILO.
Correct : A. founding
13. In industries, it is important for the _______________ to concentrate in areas of harmony.
Correct : D. government
14. There were no restrictions on child labour till _______________ was implemented.
Correct : B. labour law
15. Peace and harmony in organisation is very important for _____
Correct : B. economic development
16. For peace and harmony in industries, there is need of _____
Correct : C. law
17. Labour issues are solved in _______________.
Correct : A. labour court
18. First Annual Conference International Labour Conference began on 29th October, 1919 in _______________.
23. Which of these is an unfair labour practice on part of the workmen?
Correct : C. indulging in coercive activities against certification of a bargaining representative
24. International Labour Organisation was formulated in ______
Correct : C. 1919
25. PF act is applicable to an establishment engaged in any industry specified in ……...
Correct : D. schedule i
26. The term “Appropriate Government” is defined in which section of the PF Act?
Correct : A. section 2(a)
27. According to Section 2(a) which is the appropriate Government for a mine in a given state?
Correct : B. central government
28. Section 2(aa) of the PF act defines the term ……………
Correct : B. authorised officer
29. The term “Basic Wages” is defined in which section of the Provident Fund Act?
Correct : C. section 2(b)
30. The term contribution is defined in the section ………
Correct : D. section 2-c
31. Section 2(d) of the Provident Fund Act defines ………
Correct : A. hazardous process
32. The term “Employer” is defined in the section ……….. of the PF Act.
Correct : A. 2(e)
33. The term “Employee” is defined in the section …… of the PF Act, 1952.
Correct : C. 2(f)
34. The term “Exempted Employee” is defined under section ……. of the PF Act, 1952
Correct : C. 2(ff)
35. An employee is said to be exempted if the exemption is granted under section………
Correct : B. 17
36. The term “Exempted Establishment” is defined under which section of the EPF Act, 1952?
Correct : D. 2(fff)
37. Section 2(g) of the PF Act defines ………………
Correct : C. factory
38. The term “Fund” is defined under section ………. of the PF Act, 1952
Correct : B. 2(h)
39. Under the PF Act, 1952 “Insurance Fund” means ……………
Correct : B. deposit linked insurance fund
40. The scheme defined under section 2(i-b) of the PF Act, 1952 is ……………..
Correct : D. insurance scheme
41. The section 2(i-a) of PF Act, 1952 defines………..
Correct : C. insurance fund
42. The Insurance Scheme is framed under sub-section (1) of the Section ……… of the PF Act, 1952.
Correct : C. 6-c
43. The term “Member” is defined in the section ………… of the PF Act, 1952.
Correct : A. 2(j)
44. Section 2(k-A) of the PF Act, 1952 defines …………..
Correct : B. pension fund
45. The Employees’ Pension Fund is established under sub-section (2) of the section ………
Correct : C. 6-a
46. Section 2(kb) of the PF Act, 1952 defines ……….
Correct : C. recover officer
47. Section 2(ll) of the PF Act, 1952 defines …………
Correct : A. superannuation
48. The Employees’ Provident Funds Appellate Tribunal which is constituted under sec 7-D is defined under which
section?
Correct : D. 2(m)
49. What is the present wage limit to be eligible to be covered under the Employees’ Provident Funds and Miscellaneous
Provisions Act, 1952?
Correct : B. rs. 15,000
50. The Act is applicable to every establishment which is a factory engaged in any industry specified in Schedule I and in
which -------- twenty persons are employed
Correct : B. 20 or more
51. The chairman and members of Central Board constituted under Employees Provident Fund are appointed by
Correct : C. central government
52. Under this act, how many members are appointed by the Central Government in Central Board representing
employees in the establishments to which the Scheme applies
Correct : B. 10
53. The accounts of the Central Board is audited annually by ____
Correct : C. comptroller and auditor-general of india
54. The contribution which shall be paid by the employer to the Fund shall be
Correct : C. 12%
55. An employer who contravenes or makes default in complying with the provisions of section 6 of this act, shall be
punishable with imprisonment for a term which may extend to _____ years
Correct : C. 3
56. This Act shall not apply to any establishment registered under the Co-operative Societies Act, 1912 (2 of 1912),
employing less than ------- persons and working without the aid of power
Correct : C. 50
57. No court inferior to that of ......................class shall try any offence under this Act
Correct : B. presidency magistrate or a magistrate of the first class
58. Employees’ Provident Funds Appellate Tribunal was constituted under Section ....... the this act
Correct : D. 7d
59. Under this act, “Insurance Fund” means ……………
Correct : C. deposit linked insurance scheme
60. (EPF Scheme) from __________ to __________, with effect from 1 September 2014.
Correct : B. rs. 6500/- to rs.15000/-
61. Which of the following labour legislations is implemented only by the Central Implementation Machinery?
Correct : D. employees’ state insurance act
62. Under Section 2(12) the Act is applicable to non-seasonal factories employing---------- persons
Correct : A. 10 or more
63. Employees’ Deposit Linked Insurance Scheme was introduced in the year
Correct : A. 1976
64. The Payment of Gratuity Act was introduced in the year
Correct : C. 1972
65. The Maternity Benefit Act was introduced in the year
Correct : A. 1961
66. Which of the following benefits is covered under social security schemes?
Correct : D. all of the above
67. Making peace with employees by fulfilling all their needs without any resistance is the essence of the
Correct : A. appeasement theory
68. The age of dependent for obtaining dependent’s benefit under the Employees State Insurance Act has now been
enhanced from 18 years to
Correct : D. 25 years
69. Employees who are getting a daily average wages up to ________ are exempted from contributing employees’ share of
ESI contribution.
Correct : C. rs 100
70. The employer’s share of contribution under the ESI Act is
Correct : D. 4.75%
71. As per the latest amendment under the ESI Act, 1948 medical treatment is now available to persons under voluntary
retirement scheme also.
Correct : A. true
72. Which of the following legislations in India is governed by a tripartite organisation consisting of representatives of
labour, management and Government?
Correct : C. esi act
73. What is the wage limit for employees to be covered under the Employee State Insurance Act as per the latest
amendment?
Correct : C. rs. 15,000 per month
74. Employees’ share of contribution under the ESI Act is
Correct : A. 1.75 %
75. Which of the following legislations extends some sort of benefit to retired employees also?
Correct : A. employees’ state insurance act
76. ’Unemployment allowance’ payable is stated in
Correct : C. employee state insurance act, 1948
77. Which of the following legislations was based on the recommendations of the B.P. Adarkar Committee Report?
Correct : A. employees’ state insurance act, 1948
78. Who is an ‘exempted employee’ under the Employee’s state Insurance Act, 1948?
Correct : A. employee who is not liable under the act to pay the employee’s contribution
79. What is the content of the Schedule I of the ESI Act, 1948?
Correct : D. none of the above
80. Under ESI Act, 1948 a member of the Corporation, Standing Committee or the Medical Council shall cease to be a
member of the body if he fails to attend
Correct : A. three consecutive meetings
81. Which of the following benefits have not been provided under the Employee’s State Insurance Act, 1948?
Correct : B. children’s’ allowance
82. Which one of the following Labour Legislations provides comprehensive benefits to industrial workers in India?
Correct : B. employees’ state insurance act
83. Dependants’ Benefit paid at the rate of ----------% of wage in the form of monthly payment to the dependants of a
deceased Insured person in cases where death occurs due to employment injury or occupational hazards.
Correct : C. 90%
84. How much amount is payable to the dependents for funeral expenses?
Correct : B. rs 10000/-
85. Maternity Benefit for confinement/pregnancy is payable for three months, which is extendable by further one month
on medical advice at the rate of full wage subject to contribution for -------- days in the preceding year.
Correct : B. 70 days
86. Enhanced Sickness Benefit equal to full wage is payable to insured persons undergoing sterilisation for --------- days for
male and ________ female workers respectively.
Correct : A. 7 days and 14 days
87. Extended Sickness Benefit(ESB) is extendable upto two years in the case of 34 malignant and long-term diseases at an
enhanced rate of -------- percent of wages.
Correct : D. 80%
88. In order to qualify for sickness benefit, the insured worker is required to contribute for ------- days in a contribution
period of 6 months.
Correct : A. 78 days
89. Sickness benefit in the form of cash compensation at the rate of 70 per cent of wages is payable to insured workers
during the periods of certified sickness for a maximum of ------ days in a year.
Correct : B. 91 days
90. Medical care is provided to retired and permanently disabled insured persons and their spouses on payment of a
token annual premium of ----------
Correct : C. rs.120/-
91. The State Governments, as per provisions of the Act, contribute 1/8th of the expenditure of medical benefit within a
per capita ceiling of --------- per Insured Person per annum.
Correct : D. rs.1500/-
92. The employee welfare facilities available outside the organisation are called
Correct : A. extra-mural facilities
93. The employee welfare facilities available inside the organization are called
Correct : A. intra-mural facilities
94. Who among the following has the responsibility for employee welfare?
Correct : D. all of the above
95. An inclination to do something good for others can influence the employers to undertake welfare facilities. This is the
assumption of the
Correct : A. benevolence theory
96. In the absence of statutory requirements, the employers may not provide even the basic facilities to the employees.
This is the basic assumption of the
Correct : B. policing theory
97. Which is the year for "The Declaration of the Rights of Child"?
Correct : D. 1959
98. When was the "International Convention on the Rights of Child" adopted by the General Assembly?
Correct : A. 20/11/1989
99. Who was the President of the General Assembly, when the International Convention on the Rights of Child was adopted
by the General Assembly?
Correct : A. mr. joseph n garba
100. The International Convention on the Rights of Child consisted of how many Articles when it was presented to the
General Assembly?