Quiznetik
Basic of Civil Engineering | Set 1
1. Stones are obtained from rocks that are made up of:
A. Ores
B. Minerals
C. Chemical compounds
D. Crystals
Correct : B. Minerals
2. Which one of the following is not a classification of stones?
A. Physical Classification
B. Mineralogical Classification
C. Chemical Classification
D. Practical Classification
Correct : B. Mineralogical Classification
3. The hot molten material occurring naturally below the surface of the Earth is called:
A. Lava
B. Slag
C. Magma
D. Tuff
Correct : C. Magma
4. At what depth and rate is a hypabyssal rock formed?
A. Slow cooling of magma at considerable depth
B. Quick cooling of magma at a shallow depth
C. Rapid cooling of magma at Earth’s surface
D. Rapid cooling of magma at a shallow depth
Correct : B. Quick cooling of magma at a shallow depth
5. What is a sedimentary deposit?
A. Weathered product remains at site
B. Weathered product carried away in solution
C. Weathered product gets carried away agents
D. Insoluble weathered product is carried away in suspension
Correct : D. Insoluble weathered product is carried away in suspension
6. Which of the following is not a metamorphic change?
A. Calcite to schist
B. Limestone to marble
C. Shale to slate
D. Granite to gneisses
Correct : A. Calcite to schist
7. Which of the following rocks are hard and durable?
A. Argillaceous rocks
B. Siliceous rocks
C. Calcareous rocks
D. Carbonaceous rocks
Correct : B. Siliceous rocks
8. Foliated structure is very common in case of:
A. Sedimentary rocks
B. Plutonic rocks
C. Igneous rocks
D. Metamorphic rocks
Correct : D. Metamorphic rocks
9. Granite is a type of:
A. Plutonic rock
B. Metamorphic rock
C. Hypabyssal rock
D. Volcanic rock
Correct : A. Plutonic rock
10. Which of the following is a good fire-resistant stone?
A. Clay
B. Granite
C. Quartz
D. Limestone
Correct : A. Clay
11. What is sand composed of?
A. Silica
B. Silicon
C. Silicon oxide
D. Quartz
Correct : A. Silica
12. Which of the following sand type is excellent for use in mortar and concrete work?
A. Sea sand
B. Clayey sand
C. Pit sand
D. River sand
Correct : C. Pit sand
13. Which IS code gives the grading of sand?
A. IS 456
B. IS 383
C. IS 2368
D. IS 1542
Correct : B. IS 383
14. What type of grains constitutes river sand?
A. Angular
B. Flaky
C. Irregular
D. Rounded
Correct : D. Rounded
15. How many classifications are there for sand based on the grain size distribution?
A. 3
B. 2
C. 5
D. 4
Correct : A. 3
16. Fine sand is generally used for which of the following works?
A. Masonry
B. Concrete structures
C. Plastering
D. Grinding and polishing
Correct : C. Plastering
17. How is M-sand produced?
A. Crushing bricks
B. Quarrying
C. Reusing the debris of demolished building
D. Crushing granite stones
Correct : D. Crushing granite stones
18. By which of the following ways is lime obtained?
A. Naturally
B. Quarrying
C. Burning limestone
D. Crushing limestone
Correct : C. Burning limestone
19. Which of the following pairs is matched properly?
A. Class A – Concrete work
B. Class B – Mortar
C. Class C – Masonry work
D. Class D – White washing
Correct : B. Class B – Mortar
20. Which of the following is a property of Fat Lime?
A. Shakes very slowly
B. Contains clay
C. High degree of plasticity
D. Poor binding property
Correct : C. High degree of plasticity
21. Lime obtained from calcination of Pure Limestone is called:
A. Quick Lime
B. Pure Lime
C. Lean Lime
D. Rich Lime
Correct : A. Quick Lime
22. Which of the following slakes after few minutes?
A. Moderately Hydraulic Lime
B. Eminently Hydraulic Lime
C. Perfectly Hydraulic Lime
D. Feebly Hydraulic Lime
Correct : D. Feebly Hydraulic Lime
23. Which of the following types of Lime does not exist?
A. Dolomitic Lime
B. Roman Lime
C. Semi-Hydraulic Lime
D. Selentic Lime
Correct : B. Roman Lime
24. Why is natural cement used very limitedly?
A. Brown in Colour
B. Standard consistency is not met with
C. Sets too quickly
D. Particle size is too fine
Correct : C. Sets too quickly
25. Who invented Portland cement and in which year?
A. William Aspdin, 1824
B. William Aspdin, 1840s
C. Joseph Aspdin, 1840s
D. Joseph Aspdin, 1824
Correct : B. William Aspdin, 1840s
26. What is the average particle size of cement?
A. 15 microns
B. 45 microns
C. 75 microns
D. 100 microns
Correct : A. 15 microns
27. What is the meaning of soundness of cement?
A. Ability to flow when mixed
B. Ability to make ringing noise when struck
C. Ability to form strong and sound structure
D. Ability to retain volume after setting.
Correct : D. Ability to retain volume after setting.
28. Time elapsed from the instance of adding water until paste ceases to behave as fluid is called:
A. Initial setting time
B. Final setting time
C. Intermediate setting time
D. Absolute setting time
Correct : A. Initial setting time
29. Which of the below mentioned is not a result of field test performed on cement?
A. There should not be any lumps
B. It should feel cold when you put your hand in bag of cement
C. The colour should be blackish grey
D. It should not be gritty when rubbed with finger
Correct : C. The colour should be blackish grey
30. Which equipment is used to test the setting time of cement?
A. Core cutter
B. Vibrator
C. Universal testing machine (UTM)
D. Vicat apparatus
Correct : D. Vicat apparatus
31. What is the initial setting time of cement?
A. 1 hour
B. 30 minutes
C. 15 minutes
D. 30 hours
Correct : B. 30 minutes
32. Use of coarser cement particles leads to:
A. Low durability
B. Higher strength
C. Low consistency
D. Higher soundness
Correct : A. Low durability
33. Green cement is:
A. Green coloured cement
B. Cement mixed with plant products
C. Cement mixed with recycled materials
D. Cement mixed with green algae
Correct : C. Cement mixed with recycled materials
34. What is the depth the needle in Vicat apparatus should penetrate into the cement paste in consistency test?
A. 33-35 cm from bottom of the mould
B. 33-35 mm from top of the mould
C. 33-35 cm from top of the mould
D. 33-35 mm from bottom of the mould
Correct : B. 33-35 mm from top of the mould
35. What is the most dominant constituent of cement?
A. Silica
B. Lime
C. Magnesia
D. Alumina
Correct : B. Lime
36. Deficiency of lime in cement leads to:
A. Unsound cement
B. Disintegration of cement
C. Quick setting of cement
D. Exp
Correct : C. Quick setting of cement
37. What effect does calcium sulphate have on cement?
A. Retards setting action
B. Acts as flux
C. Imparts colour
D. Reduces strength
Correct : A. Retards setting action
38. Which of the following adds a quick-setting property to cement?
A. Magnesium oxide
B. Silicon dioxide
C. Iron oxide
D. Aluminium oxide
Correct : D. Aluminium oxide
39. Which of the following imparts greenish grey colour to cement?
A. Calcium silicate
B. Calcium aluminate
C. Calcium aluminate ferrite
D. Calcium carbonate
Correct : C. Calcium aluminate ferrite
40. Excess of Alkali in cement results in:
A. Dry cement paste
B. Efflorescence
C. Less plasticity
D. Unsound cement
Correct : B. Efflorescence
41. What function does iron oxide perform in cement?
A. Increases strength
B. Makes cement sound
C. Increases setting time
D. Acts as flux
Correct : D. Acts as flux
42. What is the abbreviation of PPC?
A. Perfect Portland Cement
B. Portland Produced Cement
C. Portland Pozzolana Cement
D. Productive Portland Cement
Correct : C. Portland Pozzolana Cement
43. Which of the following is not an advantage of rapid hardening cement?
A. Faster construction
B. Short curing period
C. Light in weight
D. Higher final setting time
Correct : D. Higher final setting time
44. How many types of cement are there based on the ability to set in presence of water?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
Correct : A. 2
45. What property does air-entraining cement provide?
A. Workability
B. Soundness
C. Fineness
D. Strength
Correct : A. Workability
46. How many constituents are there in the brick earth?
A. 5
B. 4
C. 6
D. 8
Correct : A. 5
47. Which one of the below is the most important ingredient in the brick earth?
A. Alumina
B. Lime
C. Silica
D. Magnesia
Correct : C. Silica
48. In what form should lime be present in the brick earth?
A. Paste
B. Lump
C. Clinker
D. Powder
Correct : D. Powder
49. Excess of oxides of iron makes the brick:
A. Red in colour
B. Black in colour
C. Dark blue in colour
D. Yellow in colour
Correct : C. Dark blue in colour
50. What happens to raw bricks if an excess of alumina is present?
A. Becomes hard
B. Becomes brittle
C. Decay
D. Shrinkage
Correct : D. Shrinkage
51. What is the harmful effect of presents of alkali in brick earth on bricks?
A. Discolourises bricks
B. Efflorescence
C. Porous bricks
D. Flaking
Correct : B. Efflorescence
52. Why do bricks become brittle when excess silica is present?
A. Pores are created
B. Flaking occurs
C. Thermal stability is lost
D. Cohesion is lost
Correct : D. Cohesion is lost
53. Which of the following leads to the formation of small pores in brick?
A. Iron pyrites
B. Pebbles
C. Organic matter
D. Alkalis
Correct : C. Organic matter
54. The presence of which of the below renders clay totally unsuitable for brick manufacture?
A. Kallar
B. Kankar
C. Hay
D. Lime
Correct : A. Kallar
55. Unburnt bricks are also called:
A. Dry bricks
B. Clayey bricks
C. Kucha bricks
D. Clamp bricks
Correct : C. Kucha bricks
56. Burnt bricks can be further classified into how many types?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 3
D. 5
Correct : B. 4
57. First class bricks are used for:
A. Brick ballast in R.C.C
B. Boundary walls
C. Low height walls
D. Pavements
Correct : D. Pavements
58. The minimum crushing strength of third class brick is:
A. 3.5 N/mm2
B. 7 N/mm2
C. 10 N/mm2
D. 20 N/mm2
Correct : A. 3.5 N/mm2
59. Which of the following is not a feature of second class bricks?
A. Have small irregularities
B. Water absorption is between 20-25%
C. Rectangular in shape
D. Free from cracks
Correct : B. Water absorption is between 20-25%
60. Trees are generally classified, based on the mode of growth into:
A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 3
Correct : A. 2
61. What is the life time of a moderately durable timber?
A. 10-20 years
B. 1-5 years
C. 10-15 years
D. 5-10 years
Correct : D. 5-10 years
62. Which of the following is an example of soft wood?
A. Sal
B. Oak
C. Deodar
D. Mahogany
Correct : C. Deodar
63. Which IS Code gives a classification of commercial timbers and their zonal distribution?
A. IS 620
B. IS 399
C. IS 401
D. IS 190
Correct : B. IS 399
64. Hard wood is strong in tension and weak in compression.
A. True
B. False
Correct : B. False
65. Exogenous trees are further divided into:
A. 3
B. 4
C. 2
D. 5
Correct : C. 2
66. Which of the below is a property of soft wood?
A. Medullary rays are less distinct
B. Annual rings are less distinct
C. Dark in colour
D. Close grained structure
Correct : A. Medullary rays are less distinct
67. Fine Aggregates should pass through which IS sieve?
A. 2.35mm
B. 45µ
C. 4.75mm
D. 75µ
Correct : C. 4.75mm
68. How many types of fine aggregates are there based on source?
A. 3
B. 2
C. 4
D. 6
Correct : A. 3
69. What is the fineness modulus value of a fine sand?
A. <2.2
B. 2.2-2.6
C. <1
D. 1-2
Correct : B. 2.2-2.6
70. M-Sand has ___________ type of particle shape.
A. Flaky
B. Round
C. Angular
D. Cubical
Correct : D. Cubical
71. The specific gravity for sand is:
A. 2.6
B. 2.65
C. 2.8
D. 2.75
Correct : A. 2.6
72. Graded aggregate contains particles of size:
A. Single grade
B. 4.75mm
C. Multi grade
D. <80mm
Correct : C. Multi grade
73. Flaky particles have:
A. Small thickness
B. Elongated sides
C. Sharp edges
D. Rounded edges
Correct : A. Small thickness
74. Which size coarse aggregate is ideal for use in a concrete mix?
A. Smaller
B. 4.75-10mm
C. Larger
D. 10-20mm
Correct : C. Larger
75. In crushing test on coarse aggregates, what size particle is taken as a sample?
A. Passing 12.5mm IS sieve
B. Retained on 10mm IS sieve
C. Passing 10mm and retained on 4.75mm IS sieve
D. Passing 12.5mm and retained on 10mm IS sieve
Correct : D. Passing 12.5mm and retained on 10mm IS sieve
76. Gravel is a type of:
A. Rounded aggregate
B. Angular aggregate
C. Flaky aggregate
D. Irregular aggregate
Correct : D. Irregular aggregate
77. A building can be mainly divided into how many components?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 6
D. 8
Correct : B. 3
78. D.P.C (Damp Proof Course) is mainly laid on:
A. Footing
B. Floor
C. Foundation
D. Plinth
Correct : D. Plinth
79. Floor in a building
A. Separates levels
B. Is laid below plinth
C. Contains R.C.C.
D. Has thickness of 10cm
Correct : A. Separates levels
80. Which of the below is constructed above doors, windows?
A. Joist
B. Purlin
C. Lintel
D. Arch
Correct : C. Lintel
81. What is the level below window called?
A. Pane level
B. Lintel level
C. Sill level
D. Plinth level
Correct : C. Sill level
82. Wall is mainly of how many types?
A. 3
B. 2
C. 5
D. 6
Correct : B. 2
83. ___________ wall is used to resist lateral forces like severe wind.
A. Knee wall
B. Cavity wall
C. Infill wall
D. Shear wall
Correct : D. Shear wall
84. The outer projection on the tread of a stair is:
A. Going
B. Outcrop
C. Bulge
D. Nosing
Correct : D. Nosing
85. Mortar comes from the Latin word:
A. Mortare
B. Mortarum
C. Mortaer
D. Mortarium
Correct : D. Mortarium
86. The first used Mortar was:
A. Lime mortar
B. Mud mortar
C. Cement mortar
D. Organic mortar
Correct : B. Mud mortar
87. Polymer Cement Mortar (PCM) is used primarily for:
A. Repairing concrete structure
B. Stone masonry
C. Tile masonry
D. Brick masonry
Correct : A. Repairing concrete structure
88. The guidelines for preparation for mortar is given in:
A. IS 4455
B. IS 2250-1981
C. IS 3350-1981
D. IS 5567
Correct : B. IS 2250-1981
89. Which of the below is added to make mortar fire proof?
A. Gypsum
B. Asbestos cement
C. Powdered glass
D. Aluminous cement
Correct : D. Aluminous cement
90. The setting speed of mortar can be increased using:
A. Lime
B. Sulphur
C. Pozzolana
D. Gypsum
Correct : A. Lime
91. Which of the below mortar can settle under water?
A. Hydrolytic
B. Pozzolana
C. Lime
D. Flyash
Correct : B. Pozzolana
92. Which stone is used for buildings situated in industrial towns?
A. Marble slab
B. Compact sandstone
C. Gneiss
D. Slate
Correct : B. Compact sandstone
93. Rubble masonry is sub-divided into:
A. 4
B. 2
C. 6
D. 10
Correct : C. 6
94. Which of the below joints is used for masonry in arches?
A. Butt
B. Table
C. Rebated
D. Dowel
Correct : C. Rebated
95. Which ratio of cement mortar is used for stone masonry?
A. 1:6
B. 1:3
C. 1:8
D. 1:4
Correct : B. 1:3
96. Ashlar masonry uses:
A. Dimension stones
B. Polygonal stones
C. Quarry dressed stones
D. Square stones
Correct : A. Dimension stones
97. __________ masonry occupies an intermediate position between rubble masonry and ashlar masonry.
A. Rubble block in a course
B. Ashlar rubble in course
C. Ashlar block in a course
D. Rubble ashlar in course
Correct : C. Ashlar block in a course
98. Great skill and skilled labour are required for laying:
A. Coursed rubble masonry
B. Ashlar fine masonry
C. Ashlar chamfered masonry
D. Dry rubble masonry
Correct : D. Dry rubble masonry
99. How many types of brick masonry are possible?
A. 4
B. 2
C. 5
D. 6
Correct : A. 4
100. In which bond brick is laid with its length in the direction of a wall?
A. Header
B. Flemish
C. Stretcher
D. English
Correct : C. Stretcher