1. Which of the following cannot be treated as a requirement of the instrumentation amplifier?
Correct : B. Low input impedance
2. Amplifier with power supply and output circuits galvanically isolated are called
Correct : B. Isolation amplifier
3. Voltage follower is also known as
Correct : A. Unity gain amplifier
4. Which configuration of op-amp is used for filter circuit?
Correct : C. Inverting
5. Amplification of low level signal can be done using
Correct : A. Electrometer amplifier
6. For an ideal op-amp, zero input results in zero output.
Correct : A. True
7. Which of the following is not a requirement of transmission lines?
Correct : C. High power signal
8. What is used between the two lead wires of a parallel transmission line?
Correct : A. Plastic
9. What is used as a surrounding for the solid center core in a coaxial cable?
Correct : A. Plastic dielectric
10. For what purpose was twisted pair cable first used?
Correct : B. Telephone
11. What is the type of transmission line in which neither wire is connected to the ground?
Correct : D. Balanced line
12. What is the phase difference between the current flowing in the two wires of a balanced line?
Correct : B. 180°
13. In a balanced line, noise is present in the transmission line but cancels at the receiver.
Correct : A. True
14. What is it called when the noise is present in the transmission line but gets canceled at the
receiver?
Correct : C. Common mode rejection
15. Coaxial cables are lines?
Correct : B. Unbalanced
16. What is the device that converts the balanced line to an unbalanced line called?
Correct : C. Balun
17. Which filter attenuates any frequency outside the pass band?
Correct : A. Band-pass filter
18. Narrow band-pass filters are defined as
Correct : C. Q > 10
19. Find the center frequency of wide band-pass filter
Correct : A. fc= √(fh ×fL)
20. Find out the voltage gain magnitude equation for the wide band-pass filter.
Correct : A. AFt×( f/fL)/√[(1+(f/fh)2]×[1+(f/fL)2].
21. When a second order high pass filter and second order low pass sections are cascaded, the
resultant filter is a
Correct : B. ±40dB/decade band-pass filter
22. Find the voltage gain magnitude of the wide band-pass filter?
Where total pass band gain is=6, input frequency = 750Hz, Low cut-off frequency =200Hz and high cut-off frequency=1khz.
Correct : D. c) 14.837dB
23. Compute the quality factor of the wide band-pass filter with high and low cut-off frequencies
equal to 950Hz and 250Hz.
Correct : C. 0.696
24. The details of low pass filter sections are given as fh =10kHz, AF= 2 and f=1.2kHz. Find the
voltage gain magnitude of first order wide band-pass filter, if the voltage gain magnitude of high pass filter section is 8.32dB.
Correct : C. 14.28dB
25. The quality factor of a wide band-pass filter can be
Correct : B. 9.1
26. If the gain at center frequency is 10, find the quality factor of narrow band-pass filter
Correct : C. 3
27. The advantage of narrow band-pass filter is
Correct : D. All of the mentioned
28. Which of the following is the technique of analyzing the electrical activity of the heart by
obtaining ECG’s?
Correct : A. VCG
29. Vectorcardiogram displays the electrical events in perpendicular axes.
Correct : B. two
30. is a vectorial representation of the distribution of electric potentials generated by
heart.
Correct : D. VCG
31. How many loops each vectorcardiogram exhibits?
Correct : C. three
32. Which of the following instrument is used for recording the sounds connected with the
pumping action of the heart?
Correct : C. PCG
33. Which instrument is used for clinical detection of heart sounds?
Correct : A. Stethoscope
34. Who provides a recording of waveforms of heart sounds?
Correct : C. Phonocardiograph
35. What is the frequency range of sound generated from the closure of the mitral and tricuspid
valve?
Correct : B. 30 to 100 Hz
36. Which of the following microphone is used for recording phonocardiograms?
Correct : A. Contact Microphone
37. What is the frequency range of sound produced at the closure of aortic and pulmonic valves?
Correct : D. above 100 Hz
38. What is the thickness of the new acoustic sensor?
Correct : C. 1.0 mm
39. Who described the new acoustic sensor?
Correct : D. Kassal et al
40. Acoustic sensor principal sensing component is made up of which polymer?
Correct : C. PVDF(Poly-vinylidene fluoride)
41. What is the frequency range of amplifier used for a phonocardiograph?
Correct : C. 20 to 2000 Hz
42. PCG amplifiers usually have gain compensation circuits to increase the amplification of high
frequency signals, which are usually of low intensity.
Correct : A. True
43. Which of the following instrument is used for recording the electrical activity of the muscles?
Correct : B. EMG
44. EMG is recorded by using surface electrodes.
Correct : A. True
45. Whose measurements are important for myoelectric control of prosthetic devices?
Correct : D. EMG
46. What is used to display EMG waveforms?
Correct : A. Cathode Ray Oscilloscope
47. The amplitude of EMG signals depend upon which of the following factor?
Correct : B. Position of electrode
48. What is the typical range of EMG signals?
Correct : C. 0.1 to 0.5 mV
49. EMG instrument contain frequency component extending up to Khz.
Correct : C. 10
50. What is included in the system to facilitate playback and study of EMG sound waveforms at a
later convenient time?
Correct : C. Tape Recorder
51. What is necessary for providing a common reference for measurement?
Correct : B. ground electrode
52. Which of the following interpreter can diagnose various muscular disorders by listening to
the sounds produced when the muscle potentials are fed to loudspeaker?
Correct : D. EMG
53. What is the diameter of silver electrodes in the amplifier circuit of Johnson et al?
Correct : C. 6 mm
54. What should be CMRR of preamplifier upto 5 Khz?
Correct : D. greater than 90 dB
55. Modern EMG machines are PC based.
Correct : A. True
56. EMG instrument is useful for making study of
Correct : B. neuromuscular function
57. Which of the following instrument is used for making a study of reflex responses?
Correct : D. EMG
58. Blood pressure measurement can be classified in major way(s).
Correct : A. 2
59. The regular BP cuff is a non – invasive method of measuring blood pressure.
Correct : A. True
60. How is the oxygen content monitored in blood?
Correct : B. By Pulse Oximetry
61. What principle does pulse oximetry follow?
Correct : C. Beer – Lambert Law
62. The normal BP cuff using instrument is called as
Correct : B. Sphygmomanometer
63. Which instrument is used to listen to the Korotkoff sounds?
Correct : C. Piezoelectric Microphone
64. For infants, the pulse oximetry band is attached to their
Correct : D. foot
65. Which of the following devices/ methods do not use a cuff?
Correct : D. Continuous Slow Flow Flushing Method
66. Which type of transducer is commonly used for invasive blood pressure measurement?
Correct : C. Piezoelectric
67. Which of the following uses ultrasound to check the blood flow?
Correct : A. Doppler Shift Method
68. In the differential auscultatory technique, where is the pressure sensor located?
Correct : C. In the lower portion of the cuff
69. Which of the following statement is correct?
Correct : D. 190/110 mm Hg may harm vital organs
70. Blood pressure is the pressure exerted by blood against
Correct : B. artery walls
71. Blood pressure is measured in terms of
Correct : A. mm Hg
72. A person can suffer from both low blood pressure and high blood pressure.
Correct : A. True
73. A normal heart rate in an adult at rest is
Correct : D. 75
74. Unhealthy growth of tissue due to higher pressures on the walls of the artery is termed as
Correct : A. atheroma
75. Any mechanism that increases heart rate is said to have a positive effect.
Correct : C. chronotrophic
76. The colloid osmotic pressure of blood plasma is due to high concentration of
Correct : A. albumin
77. The sinoatrial node depolarizes more frequently under the influence of
Correct : C. norepinephrine
78. is the enzyme that converts Angiotensinogen to Angiotensin I.
Correct : A. Rennin
79. The plasma is a viscous, light red liquid, i.e. almost clear in the fasting stage.
Correct : B. False
80. method is based on the absorption of electromagnetic radiation in the visible,
ultraviolet and infrared ranges.
Correct : C. Spectrophotometry
81. waves have short wave-length.
Correct : C. Gamma rays
82. The method based on the absorption of radiation of a substance is known as
Correct : D. Absorption spectrophotoscopy
83. The ratio of the radiant power transmitted by a sample to the radiant power incident on the
sample is known as
Correct : B. Transmittance
84. If absorbance is plotted graphically against concentration, the graph is
Correct : C. Straight line
85. is not a source of radiant energy.
Correct : A. Tungsten-mercury lamp
86. Which of the following statements is false about single beam absorption instruments?
Correct : B. Beam splitter is used to get parallel beam
87. Which of the following statement is false about double beam absorption instruments?
Correct : C. Reference beam must have a higher intensity than sample beam
88. Which of the following is not an application of colorimeter?
Correct : D. Composition detection
89. In photometers, the readings of the specimen are initially obtained in the form of which of the
following parameters?
Correct : A. Transmittance
90. Colorimeters are used in applications where great accuracy is required.
Correct : B. False
91. In the diagram of single beam photometer given below, identify the component that is not
marked.
Correct : C. Sample holder
92. Colorimeters are used to determine the concentration of solutions.
Correct : A. True
93. Which of the following is the purpose of balance indicator in double beam photometer or
colorimeter?
Correct : D. Indicates the difference between the output of two photometers
94. Which of the following is the purpose of the beam splitter in double beam photometer or
colorimeter?
Correct : A. Splits beam into two equal intensity beams
95. Which of the following is a source used in spectroscopy?
Correct : D. Tungsten lamp
96. Which of the following indicate leakages in a condenser?
Correct : D. The concentration of sodium in steam and condensate are not equal
97. Which of the following are added for pH adjustment in sodium analyser?
Correct : D. Ammonia buffer
98. Normally, electrodes measure which of the following parameters?
Correct : A. Activity
99. Which of the following represent the concentration of a solution?
Correct : C. Free ions and bound ions
100. Sodium selective electrode provides a good response in measurement when the pH is above
which of the following values?