2. The members of the Council of states in India are elected for a period of
Correct : C. 6 years
3. The President can’t------- Lok Sabha
Correct : B. adjourn
4. The duration of an ordinance issued by the President of India is
Correct : D. 6 weeks from the date of assembly of the parliament
5. Who promulgates ordinance in states
Correct : A. governor
6. Who presides over the joint sitting of the Parliament?
Correct : C. speaker
7. The amending power of the Constitution of India is described in Article
Correct : B. 368
8. The ex-officio chairman of the Council of States is
Correct : B. vice president
9. In India the Council of State is responsible to
Correct : B. the state
10. The number of the Anglo Indians nominated to the House of People is
Correct : C. 2
11. The number of nominated members to the Council of States is
Correct : B. 12
12. How many methods are there to amend the Constitution of India?
Correct : C. 3
13. Article 352 of the Indian Constitution deal with
Correct : D. national emergency
14. Article 32 stands suspended during an emergency under Article
Correct : A. 352
15. Which article of the constitution of India empower the President to take over the
administration of a state on the basis of failure of constitutional machinery
Correct : C. 356
16. In India the power of ‘amnesty’ has been given to the
Correct : A. president
17. The President’s rule in a state can be continued at a stretch for a maximum period of
Correct : D. one year
18. The Council of State in India has how many elected members
Correct : B. 238
19. 42ndamendment Act was adopted by the Parliament in
Correct : C. 1976
20. The supreme commander of the armed forces in India is
Correct : A. president
21. What is the maximum gap permissible between two sessions of the Parliament?
Correct : C. 6 months
22. : The power of president to grant pardon is an independent power distinct from judicial
power. It is not judiciable on its merit. Only the area and scope of president’s power under
article 72 can be examined by the court” was observed by the Supreme Court in-
Correct : D. all of the above
23. The President of India is elected by
Correct : C. elected members of both houses of parliament and state legislative assemblies
24. Council of States in India can delay a money bill for
Correct : D. 14 days
25. Public Accounts Committee has members from
Correct : D. both houses of parliament
26. The members of the Council of Ministers are collectively responsible to
Correct : B. house of the people
27. The term ‘federal’ is derived from the Latin word ‘foedus’ which means
Correct : C. covenant
28. Which commission has examined the centre- state relations?
Correct : A. sarkaria commission
29. In the Indian federal system, residuary powers rest with the
Correct : D. centre
30. Which Article of the Constitution of India provides for co-operation between states?
Correct : D. article 263
31. Madan Mohan Punchi commission was appointed to study
Correct : A. centre-state relations
32. India is a Republic in the sense that
Correct : A. it has an elected head of the state
33. The Indian federal system can be transformed into a unitary system under
Correct : D. article 352
34. President’s powers in relation to Emergency are provided in
Correct : A. article 352
35. The authority to alter the boundaries of state in India rests with
Correct : B. parliament
36. The High Courts in India do not possess
Correct : C. advisory jurisdiction
37. Provisions under 9th schedule
Correct : B. can’t be challenged in a court of law
38. Under which article of the Constitution the Supreme Court of India has been
established
Correct : B. 124
39. The High Court has the power to issue writ under article
Correct : C. 226
40. The power of the Supreme Court can be enlarged by
Correct : B. parliament
41. Judge of the Supreme Court can be removed from offices by
Correct : B. impeachment
42. Which article of the Constitution of India deals with the Advisory jurisdiction of the
Supreme Court?
Correct : C. article 143
43. Subjects in the -------- schedule is beyond the scope of Judicial Review
Correct : B. 9th
44. The Union Legislature in India is empowered
Correct : A. not to amend the basic structure of the constitution
45. Original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court is contained in
Correct : A. article 131
46. : The power of the President to consult the Supreme Court is under Article
Correct : B. 143
47. The Question as to the constitution amending power of the parliament came before
Supreme Court for the first time in
Correct : A. shankari prasad v. union of india (1951)
48. The term of president expires
Correct : D. five years from the date of entering to the office
49. Which are the grounds for proclamation of Emergency?
Correct : D. all the above
50. Financial Emergency is dealt with under Article
Correct : B. 360
51. Ground(s) for the declaration of financial emergency include-
Correct : D. all the above
52. Article 80 deals with
Correct : B. composition of rajya sebha
53. Executive power of the State is vested with
Correct : C. governor of the state
54. The Governor holds office
Correct : D. during the pleasure of the president, and if not recalled earlier, for the period of five years,
55. Once the proclamation of Emergency is made, the right of the citizen to move Supreme
Court for the enforcement of his fundamental rights is suspended by
Correct : B. the president of india
56. The powers of the President are
Correct : B. in accordance with the constitution
57. After a Bill has been passed by the Parliament and sent to the President
Correct : D. he can send it back for consideration
58. The Salary & allowances of the Governor are charged to
Correct : A. consolidated fund of the state
59. Members of Lok Sebha are elected by way of
Correct : A. people’s representation
60. Representation of Lok Sebha is based on
Correct : B. population
61. A Member of Parliament can claim immunity
Correct : B. from civil cases only
62. Prorogation of the House means
Correct : C. the session of the house has been terminated
63. The constitution of India provides special procedure for
Correct : A. money bill
64. The Attorney General of India holds office during the pleasure of
Correct : C. the president of india
65. In the event of the resignation or death of Prime Minister
Correct : A. the ministry is dissolved
66. Rajya Sebha has the exclusive authority to
Correct : C. recommend the creation of new all india services
67. A Law made by Parliament having extra-territorial operation shall
Correct : A. not be deemed invalid
68. Articles 155-159 of the Indian constitution deal with
Correct : D. president’s power to appoint and dismiss governor
69. The Speaker of Lok Sebha has to address his letter of resignation to the
Correct : B. deputy speaker of lok sebha
70. To adjudicate on any dispute relating to any inter-state riversor inter-state valley
Correct : D. the parliament is empowered to establish tribunal and to that extent the jurisdiction of the
71. The Supreme Court of India is
Correct : A. a court of record and has power to punish for its contempt
72. The judges of the Supreme Court are appointed
Correct : D. by the president in consultation with the chief justice of india and out of the judges of
73. The minimum number of judges to sit on a Constitution Bench or on a Bench which
gives its advisory opinion on the reference by the President must be
Correct : B. seven
74. Supreme Court has original jurisdiction
Correct : A. in all inter-state or union-state disputes
75. It is inappropriate for petitioner in Public Interest Litigation to
Correct : C. withdraw proceedings as of right and further too claim that they shall not be continued
76. A retired judge of High Court cannot
Correct : C. practice in the high court from which he has retired
77. The jurisdiction of Supreme Court of India may be enlarged by
Correct : A. parliament by law
78. Which Article lays down thatthe laws declared by the Supreme Court would be binding
on the courts in India?
Correct : B. article 141
79. Supreme Court struck down a part of the Preventive Detention Act in the
Correct : A. gopalan case
80. The Structure of Indian Constitution is
Correct : A. federal in form and unitary in spirit
81. The most important feature of a federation is
Correct : D. union of states
82. Which Articles of the Indian Constitution discuss the financial relations between the
Centre and the Sates?
Correct : A. articles 268-281
83. The Concurrent List contains
Correct : A. 47 subjects
84. The Union of India has power
Correct : C. both (a) and (b)
85. Emergency can be proclaimed
Correct : D. in the entire country or any part of the territory of india
86. The President can issue the proclamation of Emergency
Correct : D. when the decision of union cabinet for the issuance of such proclamation has been
87. The words ‘Socialism’ and ‘Secularism’ were inserted by the
Correct : C. 42nd amendment
88. In which case Supreme Court held that an Amendment of the Constitution under
Article 368 was ‘law within the meaning of Article 13’?
Correct : A. golakhnath v. state of punjab
89. Which of the following case was the reason behind the Parliament passing the 24th
Amendment of Constitution Act, 1971?
Correct : B. golakhnath v. state of punjab
90. First constitutional amendment was challenged in the case of
Correct : A. sankari prasad v. union of india
91. A Bill to amend the Constitution may be initiated in
Correct : C. either in rajya sebha or lok sebha
92. In case of conflict between fundamental rights of citizen and privileges of parliament,
Correct : D. generally parliamentary privileges will prevail. but, parliament while acting against the
93. Which of the following is incorrect
Correct : C. newspapers have also the freedom to publish expunged portions of the speech of an mp
94. Vidhan Sebha has a term of
Correct : C. five years unless dissolved earlier
95. Which of the following is continuing body?
Correct : C. legislative council
96. Who is considered as the Custodian of Lok Sebha?
Correct : D. the speaker
97. Decisions of the disqualification of member of Lok Sebha are taken by