Quiznetik
Computer Networks | Set 8
1. Which one of the following multimedia formats can not be supported by RTP?
A. mpeg-4
B. mjpeg
C. mpeg
D. txt
Correct : D. txt
2. An RTP header has a minimum size of _________
A. 12 bytes
B. 16 bytes
C. 24 bytes
D. 32 bytes
Correct : A. 12 bytes
3. Which one of the following is not correct?
A. rtcp provides canonical end-point identifiers to all session participants
B. rtcp reports are expected to be sent by all participants
C. rtcp itself does not provide any flow encryption or authentication methods
D. rtcp handles the actual data delivery
Correct : D. rtcp handles the actual data delivery
4. An RPC (remote procedure call) is initiated by the _________
A. server
B. client
C. client after the sever
D. a third party
Correct : B. client
5. In RPC, while a server is processing the call, the client is blocked ________
A. unless the client sends an asynchronous request to the server
B. unless the call processing is complete
C. for the complete duration of the connection
D. unless the server is disconnected
Correct : A. unless the client sends an asynchronous request to the server
6. A remote procedure call is _______
A. inter-process communication
B. a single process
C. a single thread
D. a single stream
Correct : A. inter-process communication
7. RPC allows a computer program to cause a subroutine to execute in _________
A. its own address space
B. another address space
C. both its own address space and another address space
D. applications address space
Correct : B. another address space
8. RPC works between two processes. These processes must be ____________
A. on the same computer
B. on different computers connected with a network
C. on the same computer and also on different computers connected with a network
D. on none of the computers
Correct : C. on the same computer and also on different computers connected with a network
9. A remote procedure is uniquely identified by _________
A. program number
B. version number
C. procedure number
D. all of the mentioned
Correct : D. all of the mentioned
10. An RPC application requires _________
A. specific protocol for client server communication
B. a client program
C. a server program
D. all of the mentioned
Correct : D. all of the mentioned
11. RPC is a _________
A. synchronous operation
B. asynchronous operation
C. time independent operation
D. channel specific operation
Correct : A. synchronous operation
12. Which of the following is an advantage of anomaly detection?
A. rules are easy to define
B. custom protocols can be easily analyzed
C. the engine can scale as the rule set grows
D. malicious activity that falls within normal usage patterns is detected
Correct : C. the engine can scale as the rule set grows
13. What is the purpose of a shadow honeypot?
A. to flag attacks against known vulnerabilities
B. to help reduce false positives in a signature-based ids
C. to randomly check suspicious traffic identified by an anomaly detection system
D. to enhance the accuracy of a traditional honeypot
Correct : C. to randomly check suspicious traffic identified by an anomaly detection system
14. At which two traffic layers do most commercial IDSes generate signatures?
A. application layer and network layer
B. network layer and session layer
C. transport layer and application layer
D. transport layer and network layer
Correct : D. transport layer and network layer
15. When discussing IDS/IPS, what is a signature?
A. an electronic signature used to authenticate the identity of a user on the network
B. attack-definition file
C. it refers to “normal,” baseline network behavior
D. it is used to authorize the users on a network
Correct : B. attack-definition file
16. Which of the following is true of signature-based IDSes?
A. they alert administrators to deviations from “normal” traffic behavior
B. they identify previously unknown attacks
C. the technology is mature and reliable enough to use on production networks
D. they scan network traffic or packets to identify matches with attack-definition files
Correct : D. they scan network traffic or packets to identify matches with attack-definition files
17. PPP provides the _______ layer in the TCP/IP suite.
A. link
B. network
C. transport
D. application
Correct : A. link
18. PPP consists of ________components
A. three (encapsulating, the domain name system)
B. three (encapsulating, a link control protocol, ncp)
C. two (a link control protocol, simple network control protocol)
D. one (simple network control protocol)
Correct : B. three (encapsulating, a link control protocol, ncp)
19. A Link Control Protocol (LCP) is used for ____________
A. establishing, configuring and testing the data-link connection
B. establishing and configuring different network-layer protocols
C. testing the different network-layer protocols
D. provides for multiplexing of different network-layer protocols
Correct : A. establishing, configuring and testing the data-link connection
20. A family of network control protocols (NCPs) ____________
A. are a series of independently defined protocols that provide a dynamic
B. are a series of independently-defined protocols that encapsulate
C. are a series of independently defined protocols that provide transparent
D. the same as nfs
Correct : B. are a series of independently-defined protocols that encapsulate
21. Choose the correct statement from the following.
A. ppp can terminate the link at any time
B. ppp can terminate the link only during the link establishment phase
C. ppp can terminate the link during the authentication phase
D. ppp can terminate the link during the callback control phase
Correct : A. ppp can terminate the link at any time
22. EIGRP metric is ________
A. k-values
B. bandwidth only
C. hop count
D. delay only
Correct : A. k-values
23. EIGRP can support ____________
A. vlsm/subnetting
B. auto summary
C. unequal cast load balancing
D. all of the mentioned
Correct : D. all of the mentioned
24. EIGRP sends a hello message after every ___________ seconds.
A. 5 seconds (lan), 60 seconds (wan)
B. 5 seconds (lan), 5 seconds (wan)
C. 15s
D. 180s
Correct : A. 5 seconds (lan), 60 seconds (wan)
25. Administrative distance for internal EIGRP is ______
A. 90
B. 170
C. 110
D. 91
Correct : A. 90
26. The EIGRP metric values include:
A. delay
B. bandwidth
C. mtu
D. all of the mentioned
Correct : D. all of the mentioned
27. For default gateway, which of following commands will you use on a Cisco router?
A. ip default network
B. ip default gateway
C. ip default route
D. default network
Correct : A. ip default network
28. Administrative distance for external EIGRP route is _______
A. 90
B. 170
C. 110
D. 100
Correct : B. 170
29. EIGRP uses the ____________ algorithm for finding shortest path.
A. spf
B. dual
C. linkstat
D. djikstra’s
Correct : B. dual
30. What are the other types of OLAP apart from ROLAP?
A. HOLAP
B. MOLAP
C. DOLAP
D. Both a and b above
Correct : B. MOLAP
31. A network router joins two together?
A. Computers
B. Switches
C. Networks
D. Gateway
Correct : C. Networks
32. Message Oriented Middleware allows general purpose messages to be exchanged in a Client/Server system using message queues.
A. True
B. False
C. none
D. other
Correct : A. True
33. Which of the following below is a loopback IPaddress?
A. 127.0.0.0
B. 127.0.1.1
C. 127.0.1.0
D. 127.0.0.1
Correct : D. 127.0.0.1
34. Ping command works on which protocol?
A. ICMP
B. TCP
C. IP
D. UDP
Correct : A. ICMP
35. Transport layer of OSI model lies between Network and layer
A. Application
B. Data link
C. Session
D. Presentation
Correct : C. Session
36. Which of the following protocols below work in the application layer?
A. POP
B. PPP
C. FTP
D. Both a and d above
Correct : D. Both a and d above
37. What is the port number for HTTP?
A. 25
B. 80
C. 21
D. 65
Correct : B. 80
38. IP4 is more commonly used than IPv6?
A. True
B. False
C. none
D. other
Correct : A. True
39. From the options below, which suits best for MODEM?
A. a device that modulates an analog carrier signal to encode digital information
B. a device that modulates a digital carrier signal to encode analog information
C. a device that modulates an analog carrier signal to decode digital information
D. a device that modulates a digital carrier signal to decode analoginformation
Correct : A. a device that modulates an analog carrier signal to encode digital information
40. What is the size of an IP address?
A. 64 bit
B. 128 bit
C. 16 bit
D. 32 bit
Correct : D. 32 bit
41. MAC addresses are also known as?
A. Hardware address
B. Physical address
C. both and b above
D. IP address
Correct : C. both and b above
42. A network point that provides entrance into another network is called as
A. Node
B. Gateway
C. Switch
D. Router
Correct : B. Gateway
43. UDP is an unreliable protocol.
A. True
B. False
C. none
D. other
Correct : A. True
44. A stream socket provides communications between a client and a server
A. One way
B. Two way
C. none
D. other
Correct : B. Two way
45. Token Ring is a data link technology for?
A. WAN
B. MAN
C. LAN
D. both a and b above
Correct : C. LAN
46. Which of the following protocol below are suited for email retrieval?
A. POP3
B. IMAP
C. FTP
D. Both and b above
Correct : D. Both and b above
47. TELNET used protocol for data connection
A. TCP
B. UDP
C. IP
D. DHCP
Correct : A. TCP
48. 10Base5, 10Base2, 10BaseT are types of?
A. Internet
B. LAN
C. Ethernet
D. Cables
Correct : C. Ethernet
49. The process of assigning the IP address for specific times to the various hosts by DHCP is called?
A. Lend
B. sublease
C. let
D. Lease
Correct : D. Lease
50. What is the full form of URL?
A. Uniform routing locator
B. Uniform Resource Locator
C. Universal Resource Locator
D. Uniform router locator
Correct : B. Uniform Resource Locator
51. is a standard suite of protocols used for packet switching across computer networks.
A. x.22
B. x.23
C. x.25
D. x.26
Correct : C. x.25
52. What is the full form of CAN?
A. Campus Area Network
B. Cluster Area Network
C. Control Area network
D. both A and B
Correct : D. both A and B
53. Which of the following below is/are the capability of ICMP protocol?
A. Report package count
B. Report network congestion
C. Both band d
D. Report availability of remote hosts
Correct : C. Both band d
54. ARP works on Ethernet networks.
A. False
B. True
C. none
D. other
Correct : B. True
55. assigns a unique number to each IP network adapter called the MAC address.
A. Media Access Control
B. Metro Access Control
C. Metropolitan Access Control
D. Both B and C above
Correct : A. Media Access Control
56. Piconets in the blue tooth a minimum of two and amaximum of Bluetooth peer devices.
A. five
B. eight
C. nine
D. four
Correct : B. eight
57. Dynamic addressing doesn’t allow many devices To share limited address space on a network
A. True
B. False
C. none
D. other
Correct : B. False
58. NAT stands for .
A. network address transformer
B. network address translator
C. network address translation
D. Both B and C above
Correct : C. network address translation
59. Which of the following is true for secure shell tunneling?
A. To set up an SSH tunnel, one configures an SSH client to forward a specified local port
B. SSH tunnels provide a means to not bypassfirewalls
C. All SSH clients support dynamic port forwarding
D. Both A and B
Correct : A. To set up an SSH tunnel, one configures an SSH client to forward a specified local port
60. Which of the following below are secure VPN protocols?
A. UDP
B. TCP
C. SSTP
D. Both B and C
Correct : D. Both B and C
61. What is the difference between a switch and a hub?
A. Switches operate at the physical layer while hubs operate at the data link layer
B. Switches operate at the data link layer while hubs operate at the transport layer
C. Switches operate at the data link layer while hubs operate at the physical layer
D. Switches operate at the transport layer while hubs operate at the physical layer
Correct : C. Switches operate at the data link layer while hubs operate at the physical layer
62. When computers in a network listen and receive the signal, it is termed as active toplogy
A. True
B. False
C. none
D. other
Correct : A. True
63. In 10base2, 10base5, what do 2 and 5 stand for?
A. Speed in Mbps
B. Number of segments
C. Length of segment
D. Size of segment
Correct : B. Number of segments
64. is added to data packet for error detection.
A. checksum bit
B. error bit
C. parity bit
D. other
Correct : C. parity bit
65. ALL IP addresses are divided into a network address and host address
A. True
B. False
C. none
D. other
Correct : A. True
66. How can we examine the current routing tables in command prompt?
A. using route start
B. using net start
C. using net stat
D. either a or b
Correct : C. using net stat
67. Both ping and tracert are used to find If the computer is in the network.
A. True
B. False
C. none
D. other
Correct : B. False
68. What is the difference between ring and bustopology?
A. In Ring, all nodes are connected with another in a loop while in the bus they are connected to a central cable
B. In Ring, all nodes are connected with another loop while on a bus they are connected to a central cable
C. In the bus, all nodes are connected with another in a loop while instar they are connected to a centralbnode
D. In Bus all nodes are connected with another loop while instar they are connected to a central cable
Correct : A. In Ring, all nodes are connected with another in a loop while in the bus they are connected to a central cable
69. MAC addressing works in data link layer while IP addressing works in the network layer.
A. True
B. False
C. none
D. other
Correct : A. True
70. A packet whose destination is outside the local TCP/IP network segment is sentto the _.
A. File server
B. Default gateway
C. DNS server
D. DHCP server
Correct : B. Default gateway
71. Why was the OSI model developed?
A. manufacturers disliked the TCP/IP protocol suite
B. the rate of data transfer was increasing exponentially
C. standards were needed to allow any two systems to communicate
D. none of the above
Correct : C. standards were needed to allow any two systems to communicate
72. Which piece of information is not vital for a computer in a TCP/IP network?
A. IP address
B. Default gateway
C. Subnet Mask
D. DNS server
Correct : D. DNS server
73. The physical layer is concerned with the movement of over the physical medium.
A. programs
B. dialogs
C. protocols
D. Bits
Correct : D. Bits
74. Which protocol below operates at the network layer in the OSI model?
A. IP
B. ICMP
C. RARP
D. All of the above
Correct : D. All of the above
75. In the OSI model, as a data packet moves from the lower to the upper layers, headers are .
A. added
B. removed
C. rearranged
D. Modified
Correct : B. removed
76. Session layer of the OSI model provides
A. Data representation
B. Dialog control
C. Remote job execution
D. Creating logical connections
Correct : B. Dialog control
77. IPv6 has -bit addresses.
A. 32
B. 64
C. 128
D. Variable
Correct : C. 128
78. Which one of the following functionalities aren’t provided by TCP?
A. Flow control
B. Addressing
C. Retransmission of packets as required
D. Proper sequencing of the packets
Correct : B. Addressing
79. Which of the following can be an Ethernet physical address?
A. 01:02:01:2C:4B
B. 07:01:02:01:2C:4B:2C
C. 07:01:02:01:2C:4B
D. none of the above
Correct : C. 07:01:02:01:2C:4B
80. An IP address contains bits ?
A. 8
B. 16
C. 32
D. 64
Correct : C. 32
81. Which routing protocol below is used by exterior routers between the autonomoussystems?
A. RIP
B. IGRP
C. OSPF
D. BGP
Correct : D. BGP
82. Which of the IP headers decides when the packet should be discarded?
A. Fragment control
B. TTL
C. Checksum
D. Header length
Correct : B. TTL
83. Which IP address is reserved for software loop-back?
A. 224.x.x.x
B. 127.x.x.x
C. 0.0.0.0
D. 255.255.255.255
Correct : B. 127.x.x.x
84. What is the network ID for a computer whose IP address is190.148.64.23?
A. 190
B. 190.148
C. 190.148.64
D. None of the above
Correct : B. 190.148
85. Which port is reserved for use of the SMTP protocol?
A. 21
B. 23
C. 25
D. 53
Correct : C. 25
86. Which one of the followings is a connectionless protocol?
A. UDP
B. Ethernet
C. IPX
D. All of the above
Correct : D. All of the above
87. Which application below uses the UDP protocol?
A. DNS
B. TFTP
C. RIP
D. All of the above
Correct : C. RIP
88. How many IP addresses can be assigned to hosts in a C-class network segment with a subnet mask of 255.255.255.192?
A. 62
B. 126
C. 192
D. 254
Correct : A. 62
89. Which of the followings is not a direct implication of subnet masks in TCP/IP networks?
A. Reduce network traffic
B. Increase network security
C. Assignment of more IP addresses
D. Better network management
Correct : C. Assignment of more IP addresses
90. In the layer hierarchy as the data packet moves from the upper to the lower layers, headers are
A. Added
B. Removed
C. Rearranged
D. Modified
Correct : A. Added
91. The structure or format of data is called
A. Syntax
B. Semantics
C. Struct
D. Formatting
Correct : A. Syntax
92. Communication between a computer and a keyboard involves transmission.
A. Automatic
B. Half-duplex
C. Full-duplex
D. Simplex
Correct : D. Simplex
93. The first Network was called
A. CNNET
B. NSFNET
C. ASAPNET
D. ARPANET
Correct : D. ARPANET
94. A set of rules that governs data communication.
A. Protocols
B. Standards
C. RFCs
D. Servers
Correct : A. Protocols
95. Communication channel is shared by all the machines on the networkin
A. Broadcast network
B. Unicast network
C. Multicast network
D. Anycast network
Correct : A. Broadcast network
96. A is a device that forwards packets between networks by processing the routing information included in the packet.
A. Bridge
B. Firewall
C. Router
D. Hub
Correct : C. Router
97. Network congestion occurs
A. In case of traffic overloading
B. When a system terminates
C. When connection between two nodes terminates
D. In case of transfer failure
Correct : A. In case of traffic overloading
98. Which of the following networks extends a private network across public networks?
A. Local area network
B. Virtual private network
C. Enterprise private network
D. Storage area network
Correct : B. Virtual private network
99. The number of layers in ISO OSI reference model is
A. 5
B. 7
C. 6
D. 10
Correct : B. 7
100. Which of the following layers is an addition to OSI model when compared with TCP IPmodel?
A. Application layer
B. Presentation layer
C. Session layer
D. Session and Presentation layer
Correct : D. Session and Presentation layer