25. Nitrate tolerance is least likely to develop with the use of:
Correct : B. Sublingual glyceryl trinitrate
26. Glyceryl trinitrate is administered by the following routes except:
Correct : C. Intramuscular
27. Myocardial Na+ channel blockade by lignocaine has the following characteristic:
Correct : A. It blocks inactivated Na+ channels more than activated channels
28. Hypothyroidism is a possible consequence of prolonged therapy with:
Correct : A. Amiodarone
29. The following is true of procainamide except:
Correct : B. Its plasma half-life is longer than that of quinidine
30. The most significant feature of the antiarrhythmic action of is:
Correct : A. Suppression of phase-4 depolarization in ventricular ectopic foci
31. Quinidine is now used primarily for:
Correct : D. Prevention of recurrences of atrial fibrillation/ ventricular tachycardia
32. The following antiarrhythmic drug has the most prominent anticholinergic action:
Correct : A. Disopyramide
33. The following is not true about :
Correct : B. It has no effect on myocardial K+ channels
34. Beneficial effect/effects of diuretics in CHF patients include the following:
Correct : A. Symptomatic relief
35. Glyceryl trinitrate is used in CHF for:
Correct : B. Rapid symptom relief in acute left ventricular failure
36. Vasodilators are used to treat:
Correct : D. All of the above
37. Given drug is administered by the following routes except:
Correct : C. Intramuscular
38. Which of the following drugs is most likely to accentuate varient (Prinzmetal) angina?
Correct : A. Propranolol
39. The following antianginal drug is most likely to produce tachycardia as a side effect:
Correct : B. Nifedipine
40. The cardiac response to verapamil and nifedipine in human subjects is:
Correct : C. Verapamil causes bradycardia while nifedipine causes tachycardia
41. Propranolol should not be prescribed for a patient of angina pectoris who is already receiving:
Correct : C. Verapamil
42. Given drug is
Correct : C. Verapamil
43. The short acting dihydropyridine preparations can aggravate myocardial ischaemia by invoking:
Correct : D. Reflex sympathetic discharge to the heart
44. Which of the following drugs is a potassium channel opener?
Correct : A. Nicorandil
45. The characteristic feature(s) of dihydropyridine calcium channel blockers is/are:
Correct : D. All of the above
46. The dihydropyridines block the following type of calcium channels:
Correct : A. L-type voltage sensitive channels
47. Select the drug which is a potassium channel opener as well as nitric oxide donor:
Correct : D. Nicorandil
48. Though nitrates and calcium channel blockers are both vasodilators, they are used concurrently
in angina pectoris, because:
Correct : B. Nitrates primarily reduce preload while calcium channel blockers primarily reduce after-load
49. The most likely mechanism of antihypertensive action of thiazide diuretics in the long-term is:
Correct : D. Reduction in total peripheral vascular resistance and improved compliance of resistance Vessels
50. Rapid intravenous injection of clonidine causes rise in BP due to:
Correct : C. Agonistic action on vascular α adrenergic receptors
51. Methyldopa lowers BP by:
Correct : B. Generating α-methyl noradrenaline in brain which reduces sympathetic tone
52. Methyldopa differs from clonidine in the following respect:
Correct : A. It is less likely to cause rebound hypertension on sudden discontinuation
53. Used alone the following antihypertensive drug tends to increase cardiac work and can
precipitate angina:
Correct : B. Hydralazine
54. is a directly acting vasodilator, but is not used alone as an antihypertensive because:
Correct : C. Tolerance to the antihypertensive action develops early due to counterregulatory mechanisms
55. Long-term hydralazine therapy is likely to cause:
Correct : D. Lupus erythematosus
56. The following vasodilator(s) act(s) by opening K+ channels in the vascular smooth muscle:
Correct : D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’
57. Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors are contraindicated in:
Correct : D. Pregnant women
58. Secretion of K+ in the late distal tubule and collecting ducts of kidney depends on:
Correct : D. All of the above
59. Metformin belongs to which class?
Correct : C. Biguanides
60. Diuretics acting on the ascending limb of loop of Henle are the most efficacious in promoting
salt and water excretion because:
Correct : B. Reabsorptive capacity of the segments distal to it is limited
61. Furosemide acts by inhibiting the following in the renal tubular cell:
Correct : A. Na+-K+-2Cl– cotransporter
62. Thiazide diuretics and furosemide have directionally opposite effect on the net renal excretion of
the following substance:
Correct : B. Calcium
63. The Na+-Cl– symport in the early distal convoluted tubule of the kidney is inhibited by:
Correct : D. All of the above
64. Choose the correct statement about thiazide diuretics:
Correct : D. They induce diuresis in acidosis as well as alkalosis
65. Thiazide diuretics enhance K+ elimination in urine primarily by:
Correct : C. Increasing the availability of Na+ in the distal tubular fluid to exchange with interstitial K+
66. The primary site of action of thiazide diuretics is:
Correct : C. Cortical diluting segment
67. The most important reason for the thiazides being only moderately efficacious diuretics is:
Correct : A. About 9/10th of glomerular filtrate is reabsorbed proximal to their site of action
68. Given drug is
Correct : C. Furosemide
69. Long-term thiazide therapy can cause hyperglycaemia by:
Correct : A. Reducing insulin release
70. Which of the following is a potassium retaining diuretic:
Correct : A. Triamterene
71. Choose the correct statement about osmotic diuretics:
Correct : D. They can lower intraocular pressure
72. The primary mechanism by which antidiuretic hormone reduces urine volume is:
Correct : D. Increased water permeability of collecting duct cells
73. The primary mechanism by which heparin prevents coagulation of blood is:
Correct : B. Facilitation of antithrombin III mediated inhibition of factor Xa and thrombin
74. Low concentrations of heparin selectively interfere with the following coagulation pathway(s):
Correct : A. Intrinsic pathway
75. Low doses of heparin prolong:
Correct : B. Activated partial thromboplastin time
76. Low molecular weight heparins differ from unfractionated heparin in that:
Correct : D. All of the above are correct
77. Low molecular weight heparins have the following advantages over unfractionated heparin
except:
Correct : A. Higher efficacy in arterial thrombosis
78. Choose the drug of which IUPAC name is 1,1-dimethylbiguanide.
Correct : B. Metformin
79. Which fibrinolytic agent(s) selectively activate(s) fibrin bound plasminogen rather than
circulating plasminogen:
Correct : C. Alteplase
80. The most important complication of streptokinase therapy is:
Correct : B. Bleeding
81. Aspirin prolongs bleeding time by inhibiting the synthesis of:
Correct : D. Thromboxane A2 in platelets
82. The following is true of clopidogrel except:
Correct : A. It is a GPIIb/IIIa receptor antagonist
83. Choose the most potent and most efficacious LDL cholesterol lowering HMG-CoA reductase
inhibitor:
Correct : D. Atorvastatin
84. Select the most appropriate hypolipidemic drug for a patient with raised LDL-cholesterol level but
normal triglyceride level:
Correct : A. A HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor
85. Select the hypolipidemic drug that enhances lipoprotein synthesis, fatty acid oxidation and LDLreceptor expression in liver through paroxisome proliferator-activated receptor α
Correct : C. Bezafibrate
86. Plasma expanders are used in the following conditions except: (Note: They will increase circulating blood volume and thus preload on heart, which will worsen heart failure.)
Correct : A. Congestive heart failure
87. Trapping of iodide by the following organ/organs is enhanced by thyrotropin:
Correct : A. Thyroid
88. Triiodothyronine differs from thyroxine in that:
Correct : B. It has a shorter plasma half life
89. The most reliable guide to adjustment of thyroxine dose in a patient of hypothyroidism is:
Correct : D. Serum TSH level
90. Actions of thyroxine include the following except:
Correct : C. Fall in plasma free fatty acid level
91. acts by inhibiting:
Correct : B. Oxidation of iodide
92. Antithyroid drugs exert the following action:
Correct : A. Inhibit thyroxine synthesis
93. Given structure is of
Correct : B. Methimazole
94. The following thyroid inhibitor interferes with peripheral conversion of thyroxine to
triiodothyronine:
Correct : A. Propyl thiouracil
95. The uses of sodium/potassium iodide include the following except:
Correct : C. As antiseptic
96. The physical half life of radioactive 131I is:
Correct : B. 8 days
97. Propranolol is used in hyperthyroidism:
Correct : A. As short-term symptomatic therapy till effect of carbimazole develops
98. Insulin release from pancreatic β cells is augmentednby the following except:
Correct : D. Alfa adrenergic agonists
99. Action of Insulin does not include the following:
Correct : C. Facilitation of neoglucogenesis by liver
100. The major limitation of the thiazolidinediones in the treatment of type 2 diabetes mellitus is:
Correct : D. Low hypoglycaemic efficacy in moderate to severe cases