3. Relevancy and admissibility under the Indian Evidence Act are
Correct : C. neither synonymous nor co-extensive
4. ‘Self-regarding’ statements
Correct : C. can be self-serving or self-harming
5. Under the law of evidence, as a general rule
Correct : D. opinion whether on a matter of fact or law, is irrelevant.
6. Indian Evidence Act applies to
Correct : C. judicial proceedings in courts
7. Law of evidence is
Correct : B. lexfori
8. Law of evidence is
Correct : B. an adjective law
9. Facts can be
Correct : C. physical as well as psychological facts
10. Under the Evidence Act, fact means
Correct : C. both factuin probaizdum and factum probans
11. Fact in issue means
Correct : B. fact, existence or non-existence of which is disputed by the parties
12. Evidence under the Indian Evidence Act means & includes
Correct : C. ocular and documentary evidence both
13. Proof of a fact depends on
Correct : B. not upon the accuracy of the statement but upon the probability of its existence
14. Presumptions under the law of evidence are
Correct : C. both (a) & (b)
15. Under the law of evidence, the relevant fact
Correct : A. must be legally relevant
16. Relevancy is
Correct : A. question of law and can be raised at any time
17. Which of the following documents are not admissible in evidence
Correct : D. neither (a) nor (b).
18. The facts which form part of the same transaction are relevant
Correct : B. under section 6 of evidence act
19. Several classes of facts, which are connected with the transaction(s) in a particular
mode, are relevant
Correct : B. under section 7 of evidence act
20. Motives, of preparation and conduct are relevant
Correct : C. under section 8 of evidence act
21. Under section 8 of Evidence Act
Correct : D. all the above.
22. For conduct to be relevant under section 8 of Evidence Act, it
Correct : C. may be either previous or subsequent
23. Facts which are necessary to explain or introduce relevant facts of place, name, date,
relationship & identity of parties are relevant
Correct : B. under section 9 of evidence act
24. Under section 9 of Evidence Act
Correct : C. both (a) & (b) are relevant
25. Identification of a suspect by photo is
Correct : A. admissible in evidence
26. Things said or done by a conspirator in reference to the common design is relevant
Correct : C. under section 10 of evidence act
27. A confession made ‘by a conspirator involving other members is relevant against the
co-conspirator jointly tried with him and is admissible
Correct : C. under section 30 of evidence act
28. Alibi is governed by
Correct : D. section 11 of evidence act.
29. Transaction and instances relating to a right or custom are relevant
Correct : D. under section 13 of evidence act.
30. Section 13 of Evidence Act applies to
Correct : C. both corporal and incorporal rights
31. Section 13 of Evidence Act
Correct : B. is not confined to public rights and covers private rights also
32. Mode of proof of a custom is contained in
Correct : D. all the above.
33. Section 14 of Evidence Act makes relevant the facts which show the existence of
Correct : C. either state of mind or of body or bodily feeling
34. Under section 15 of Evidence Act, facts showing series of similar occurrences, involving
the same person are relevant
Correct : A. when it is uncertain whether the act is intentional or accidental i
35. Admissions
Correct : A. must be examined as a whole and not in parts
36. Admissions bind the maker
Correct : A. in so far as it relates to facts
37. Admissions
Correct : C. either oral or in writing
38. Admission can be
Correct : C. either formal or informal
39. Admissions
Correct : B. are not conclusive proof of the matters admitted but operate as estoppel
40. Persons who can make admissions are mentioned in
Correct : D. section 18 of evidence act.
41. Admissions by agents are A
Correct : D. both (b) & (c). i
42. Admissions made by a party are evidence against
Correct : C. privies in estate
43. Which of the following admission is no evidence
Correct : D. only (a) &(b).
44. In a reference made over a disputed matter to a third person, the declaration so made
by that person shall be an evidence against the party making a reference, by virtue of
Correct : C. section 20 of evidence act
45. Communication made ‘without prejudice’ are protected
Correct : B. under section 23 of evidence act
46. Confession caused by inducement, threat or promise is contained in
Correct : A. section 24 of evidence act
47. Section 24 of Evidence Act applies
Correct : D. only (a) & (b) are correct.
48. A confession made to a police officer is inadmissible under
Correct : B. section 25 of evidence act
49. A confession to be inadmissible under section 25 of Evidence Act
Correct : C. may relate to the same crime or another crime
50. Which of the following is not given by section 25 of Evidence Act
Correct : D. all the above.
51. A retracted confession
Correct : C. can not be made solely the basis of conviction unless the same is corroborated
52. A confession made by a person while in police custody is inadmissible as per
Correct : B. section 26 of evidence act
53. A confession made while in police custody is admissible under section 26 of Evidence
Act
Correct : C. if made in the presence of a magistrate
54. A section 27 control
Correct : D. all the above.
55. Under section 27 of Evidence Act, ‘discovery of fact’ includes
Correct : C. both (a) & (b)
56. Section 27 of Evidence Act applies
Correct : B. when the person giving information is an accused and is in police custody
57. Under section 27 of Evidence Act
Correct : B. only that portion which distinctly relates to the discovery is admissible
58. Facts discovered in consequences of a joint information
Correct : A. are not admissible and can not be used against any of the accused person
59. Confession of an accused is admissible against the other co-accused
Correct : C. under section 30 of evidence act
60. Confession of one accused is admissible against co-accused
Correct : A. if they are tried jointly for the same offences
61. ‘Necessity rule’ as to the admissibility of evidence is contained in
Correct : B. section 32 of evidence act
62. Under section 32 of Evidence Act, a statement of a person who is dead, to be admissible
Correct : A. must relate to the cause of his own death
63. The person whose statement is admitted under section 32 of Evidence Act
Correct : C. may or may not be competent to testify
64. A dying declaration is admissible
Correct : C. in civil as well as criminal proceedings ‘both
65. A dying declaration
Correct : A. can form the sole basis of conviction without any corroboration by independent evidence
66. A dying declaration to be admissible
Correct : D. may be made either before a magistrate or a police officer or a doctor or a private person.
67. Declaration in course of business are admissible
Correct : B. under section 32(2) of evidence act
68. Declaration as to custom are admissible
Correct : C. under section 32(4) of evidence act
69. Under section 32(4) of Evidence Act, the declaration
Correct : A. as to public rights & customs are admissible
70. Opinions of experts are relevant
Correct : A. under section 45 of evidence act
71. Under section 45 of Evidence Act, the opinion of expert can be for
Correct : C. both (a) & (b)
72. Under section 45 of Evidence Act the opinion of expert can be on the question of
Correct : B. foreign law
73. Opinion of an ‘ expert under section 45 of Evidence Act
Correct : C. is supportive 8: corroborative in nature
74. The res inter alia acta is receivable
Correct : B. under section 46 of evidence act
75. Entries in the books of accounts regularly kept in the course of business are admissible
under section 34 of Evidence Act
Correct : C. irrespective of whether they themselves create a liability or not
76. Facts of which the judicial notice is to be taken are stated in
Correct : B. section 57 of evidence act
77. List of facts of which the judicial notice has to be taken under section 57 of Evidence
Act
Correct : B. is illustrative only
78. Facts which need not be proved by the parties include
Correct : C. both (a) & (b)
79. The court may in its discretion call for proving the facts
Correct : B. which have been admitted otherwise than such admissions
80. Oral evidence under section 60 of Evidence Act may be
Correct : A. direct only
81. Contents of a document under section 59 of Evidence Act
Correct : B. can not be proved by oral evidence
82. Contents of a document may be proved under section 61 of Evidence Act
Correct : C. either by primary or by secondary evidence
83. Secondary evidence of a document is admissible as a substitute for
Correct : A. admissible primary evidence
84. The circumstances under which the secondary evidence is admissible have been
enumerated in
Correct : C. section 65 of evidence act
85. Oral account of the contents of a document is admissible
Correct : A. when given by a person who has seen & read the document a
86. A will is required to be proved by calling at least one attesting witness
Correct : D. all of the above.
87. Public documents are mentioned in
Correct : C. section 74 of evidence act
88. Documents which are not covered under section 74 of Evidence Act are called
Correct : C. private documents
89. Maxim ’0mnia proesumuntur rite esse acta’ means
Correct : A. all acts are presumed to be rightly done
90. Admissibility of electronic record has been prescribed under
Correct : C. section 65b of evidence act
91. Principle of ’0mnia proesumuntur rite esse acta’ is contained in
Correct : B. section 79 of evidence act
92. Section 79 of Evidence Act applies to
Correct : D. all the above.
93. Section 79 of Evidence Act contains
Correct : B. a rebuttable presumption of law
94. Sections 79 to 85 of Evidence Act contain
Correct : B. rebuttable presumptions of law
95. Presumption as to the accuracy of maps 8: plans made by the authority of
Government is contained in
Correct : C. section 83 of evidence act
96. Under section 83 of Evidence Act, presumption as to accuracy of maps 8: plans can
be raised in respect of
Correct : B. maps & plans made by the authority of government
97. Due execution and authentication of a power of attorney shall be presumed under
section 85 of Evidence Act when executed before & authentication by
Correct : D. all the above.
98. Due execution of a document more than thirty years old coming from proper
custody, IS a
Correct : A. presumption of fact
99. The presumption under section 90 of Evidence Act can be drawn in respect of
Correct : A. original documents
100. Section 90 of Evidence Act applies to
Correct : C. both testamentary and non-testamentary documents