Quiznetik

Corporate Accounting | Set 3

1. Under Ind AS 16, which of the following is not allowable as a directly attributable cost of a machine?

A. delivery

B. site preparation

C. estimated dismantling costs

D. initial test batches

Correct : D. initial test batches

2. What is the amount an asset could achieve if sold between knowledgeable, willing parties in an arm’s length transaction?

A. current value

B. net present value

C. written down value

D. fair value

Correct : D. fair value

3. Which of the following is covered by Ind AS 16 Property, Plant and Equipment?

A. office buildings

B. assets held for sale

C. exploration assets

D. biological assets related to agricultural activity

Correct : A. office buildings

4. Which of the following disclosures is not required when an asset is revalued?

A. name of valuer

B. revaluation surplus

C. effective date of revaluation

D. whether valuer was independent

Correct : A. name of valuer

5. Under Ind AS 16, which two subsequent accounting treatments are allowed subsequently to initial recognition?

A. cost model and present value model

B. cost model and revaluation model

C. fair value model and revaluation model

D. fair value model and cost model

Correct : B. cost model and revaluation model

6. When an asset is sold or disposed of, where is the gain or loss recognised?

A. asset disposal account

B. profit and loss

C. revaluation reserve

D. depreciation

Correct : B. profit and loss

7. Which of the following is not a component of cost of an asset?

A. purchase price

B. refundable sales tax

C. import duties

D. estimate of compulsory future dismantling costs

Correct : B. refundable sales tax

8. When an item of property, plant and equipment is revalued, what should be revalued?

A. a selection of assets decided by management

B. a selection of assets picked at random

C. the whole class of assets to which it belongs

D. the individual asset

Correct : C. the whole class of assets to which it belongs

9. Which of the following is not an asset that falls under the scope of Ind AS 16?

A. assets held for sale in the normal course of business

B. tangible assets

C. assets expected to be used for more than one period

D. assets held for the production or supply of goods or services

Correct : A. assets held for sale in the normal course of business

10. How should an asset be initially recognised in the financial statements?

A. measure at market value

B. measure at cost

C. measure at net realisable value

D. measure at fair value

Correct : B. measure at cost

11. Where is the amortisation of an intangible asset recognised?

A. equity

B. profit or loss

C. statement of financial position

D. statement of cash flows

Correct : B. profit or loss

12. Which of the following is not a requirement to capitalise development costs under Ind AS 38 Intangible Assets?

A. the commercial feasibility for the asset may be uncertain

B. it must be technically feasible

C. the entity intends to sell the completed intangible asset

D. the entity can demonstrate how the asset will generate future economic benefits

Correct : A. the commercial feasibility for the asset may be uncertain

13. An intangible asset with a finite useful life should be amortised over

A. a period determined by management

B. five years

C. its expected useful life

D. no foreseeable limit

Correct : C. its expected useful life

14. What are intangible assets?

A. nonmonetary assets without physical substance

B. monetary assets without physical substance

C. monetary assets with physical substance

D. nonmonetary assets with physical substance

Correct : A. nonmonetary assets without physical substance

15. Which of the following is an intangible asset under Ind AS 38?

A. patent rights

B. market share

C. customer loyalty

D. technical knowledge training

Correct : A. patent rights

16. Which of the following measurement models is not permitted for the subsequent measurement of intangible assets under Ind AS 38?

A. revaluation model

B. fair value model

C. cost model

D. capital assets pricing model

Correct : D. capital assets pricing model

17. What is the correct treatment for all eligible borrowing costs under Ind AS 23?

A. expensed

B. capitalised

C. invested

D. none of the above

Correct : B. capitalised

18. Which of the following is not a qualifying asset under Ind AS 23 Borrowing Costs?

A. manufacturing plants

B. made to order inventory

C. mass produced inventory

D. investment property

Correct : C. mass produced inventory

19. Which of the following items should be disclosed as per the requirements of Ind AS 2?

A. carrying amount of inventories pledged as security for liabilities

B. average lead time of procurement for major classes of inventories

C. list of major customers to whom the inventories were sold during the reporting period

D. average holding period of inventories of the entity as at the end of the reporting period

Correct : A. carrying amount of inventories pledged as security for liabilities

20. Which of the following items are excluded from the scope of Ind AS 2 Inventories?

A. inventories that are stated at net realisable value

B. assets held for sale in the ordinary course of business

C. inventories whose fair value is more than the cost

D. agricultural produce at the point of harvest

Correct : D. agricultural produce at the point of harvest

21. Under Ind AS 2, fixed production overheads should be allocated to items of inventory on the basis of ____ production capacity.

A. actual

B. abnormal

C. normal

D. estimated

Correct : C. normal

22. Which of the following cost models is not permitted under Ind AS 2?

A. fifo

B. lifo

C. actual cost

D. simple average

Correct : B. lifo

23. Which of the below mentioned formula are covered by Ind AS 2? (i) FIFO, (ii) LIFO, (iii) Weighted Average.

A. i, ii

B. i, iii

C. ii, iii

D. all

Correct : B. i, iii

24. Which of the following costs must be expensed under Ind AS 2?

A. selling and distribution overheads incurred in the ordinary course of business

B. variable production overheads that are allocated to each unit based on actual usage

C. import duties on raw materials that are paid to the authorities

D. costs of purchase that are paid to the suppliers of raw materials

Correct : A. selling and distribution overheads incurred in the ordinary course of business

25. How are unallocated overheads treated as per Ind AS 2?

A. recognise as an expense in the period in which they are incurred

B. recognise as an expense so long as there is a profit in the current period

C. treated as deferred expenditure

D. capitalised with the cost of inventories

Correct : A. recognise as an expense in the period in which they are incurred

26. After convergence of Indian accounting standards with IFRS, new standard issued for preparing the cash flow statement is:

A. ind as 10

B. ind as 3

C. ind as 7

D. ind as 12

Correct : C. ind as 7

27. Under Ind AS 12 a temporary difference is defined as

A. the difference between the tax base of an item and that items carrying amount in the balance sheet

B. the difference between the carrying amount of an item and that items fair value less costs to sell

C. the difference between the carrying amount of an item and that items revalued amount

D. a difference which will reverse in the next accounting period

Correct : C. the difference between the carrying amount of an item and that items revalued amount

28. Activities that result in changes in the size and composition of the equity capital and borrowings of an entity are called

A. financing activities

B. operating activities

C. investing activities

D. none of these

Correct : A. financing activities

29. The principal revenue-producing activities of an entity are called

A. investing activities

B. operating activities

C. financing activities

D. none of these

Correct : B. operating activities

30. Cash payments to and on behalf of employees is an example of cash flows from

A. operating activities

B. financing activities

C. investing activities

D. none of these

Correct : A. operating activities

31. Which of the following is not a heading for cash flows under Ind AS 7?

A. cash flows from normal activities

B. cash flows from operating activities

C. cash flows from investing activities

D. cash flows from financing activities

Correct : A. cash flows from normal activities

32. Activities that result in changes in the size and composition of the equity capital and borrowings of an entity are called:

A. operating activities

B. investing activities

C. financing activities

D. none of these

Correct : C. financing activities

33. Increase in share capital of a firm in the current year as compared to previous year should be recorded in the final cash flow statement under

A. investing activities

B. financing activities

C. operating activities

D. all of the above

Correct : B. financing activities

34. When presenting discontinued operations in the cash flow statement

A. they are pooled with other current assets

B. they are added to non-cash items

C. they are ignored

D. they are shown separately

Correct : D. they are shown separately

35. An entity shall explain how the transition from previous GAAP to IFRSs __________ its reported financial position, financial performance and cash flows.

A. adjusted

B. corroborated

C. affected

D. benefited

Correct : C. affected

36. How does an entity adopt IFRSs for the first time?

A. by reporting on its financial position, financial performance and cash flows in accordance with ifrss

B. by issuing its first financial statements in which the entity adopts ifrss, by an explicit and unreserved statement of compliance with ifrss

C. by reporting on its financial position, financial performance and cash flows in accordance with national requirements, which do not contradict ifrss

D. by issuing its first financial statements in accordance with national requirements, which contain explicit and unreserved statement of compliance with ifrss

Correct : B. by issuing its first financial statements in which the entity adopts ifrss, by an explicit and unreserved statement of compliance with ifrss

37. Which of the following is the starting point for an entity accounting in accordance with IFRSs?

A. the date when the decision about adopting ifrs has been made

B. the date of issuance of the first financial statement in accordance with ifrs

C. the date of transition to ifrss

D. the date when the explicit and unreserved statement of compliance with ifrss has been made

Correct : C. the date of transition to ifrss

38. Accounting in India is governed by the

A. rbi

B. company law board

C. income tax department

D. icai

Correct : D. icai

39. The convergence of the Indian Accounting Standards with IFRS began in

A. april 2010

B. april 2012

C. april 2015

D. april 2000

Correct : C. april 2015

40. Ind AS will apply to

A. both consolidated as well as standalone financials of the company

B. only consolidated financials

C. only standalone financials

D. optional

Correct : A. both consolidated as well as standalone financials of the company

41. Total Number of Ind AS which are notified as of date?

A. 40

B. 41

C. 42

D. 43

Correct : C. 42

42. Total Number of IFRSs which are notified as of date?

A. 16

B. 17

C. 18

D. 19

Correct : A. 16

43. Total Number of IFRIC Interpretations which are notified as of date?

A. 23

B. 24

C. 25

D. 26

Correct : A. 23

44. Total Number of SIC Interpretations which are notified as of date?

A. 30

B. 31

C. 32

D. 33

Correct : D. 33

45. What items of inventories are outside the scope of Ind AS 2?

A. work in progress arising under construction contracts

B. raw materials including maintenance supplies

C. share, debentures held as stock-in-trade

D. machinery spares exclusively used with fixed assets

Correct : A. work in progress arising under construction contracts

46. A provision is

A. a liability of uncertain timing or amount

B. a possible obligation as a result of past events that is of uncertain timing or amount

C. an adjustment to the carrying amount of assets

D. none of these

Correct : A. a liability of uncertain timing or amount

47. When Redeemable Preference shares are due for redemption, the entry passed is

A. debit redeemable preference share capital a/c; credit cash a/c

B. debit redeemable preference share capital a/c; credit preference shareholders a/c

C. debit preference shareholders a/c; credit cash a/c

D. debit preference shareholders a/c; credit capital reduction a/c

Correct : B. debit redeemable preference share capital a/c; credit preference shareholders a/c

48. Which of the following can be utilized for the redemption of preference shares of a company out of profit:

A. shares forfeited account

B. development rebate reserve account

C. capital redemption reserve account

D. dividend equalization reserve

Correct : D. dividend equalization reserve

49. Which of the following cannot be utilized for the redemption of preference shares of a company

A. securities premium on fresh issue of shares

B. general reserve

C. profit and loss account

D. dividend equalization reserve

Correct : A. securities premium on fresh issue of shares

50. A company cannot issue redeemable preference shares for a period exceeding _________.

A. 6 years

B. 7 years

C. 8 years

D. 20 years

Correct : D. 20 years

51. Which of the following cannot be used for the purpose of creation of capital redemption reserve account?

A. profit and loss account (credit balance)

B. general reserve account

C. dividend equalization reserve account

D. unclaimed dividends account

Correct : D. unclaimed dividends account

52. The Capital Redemption reserve is created for the following reasons:

A. to maintain the capital intact

B. to safeguard the interest company’s creditors

C. both of the above

D. none of the above

Correct : C. both of the above

53. Which of the following accounts can be transferred to capital redemption reserve account?

A. general reserve account

B. forfeited shares account

C. profit prior to incorporation

D. securities premium account

Correct : A. general reserve account

54. The technique of converting figures into percentage in some common base is called _____.

A. ratio analysis

B. common size statement analysis

C. trend percentages

D. none of these

Correct : A. ratio analysis

55. The ratio which depicts the relationship between two items, one of which is drawn from the Balance Sheet and the other from the revenue account

A. current ratio

B. equity ratio

C. net profit ratio

D. debtors turnover ratio

Correct : D. debtors turnover ratio

56. The ratio of liquid asset to current liabilities

A. quick ratio

B. current ratio

C. absolute liquid ratio

D. combined ratio

Correct : A. quick ratio

57. The ratio which shows the relationship b/w shareholder’s fund and total assets

A. debit equity ratio

B. proprietary ratio

C. solvency ratio

D. fixed asset

Correct : B. proprietary ratio

58. Long term solvency of a firm can be measured by

A. current ratio

B. net profit ratio

C. gross profit ratio

D. debt equity ratio

Correct : D. debt equity ratio

59. The ratio that shows the relationship between fixed asset to shareholders fund

A. fixed asset to net worth

B. fixed asset ratio

C. fixed assets turnover ratio

D. net worth ratio

Correct : A. fixed asset to net worth

60. The index of efficiency and profitability of the business

A. operating ratio

B. operating profit ratio

C. expense ratio

D. net profit ratio

Correct : D. net profit ratio

61. The ratio that includes whether investment in inventory is efficiently used or not

A. inventory turnover ratio

B. working capital turnover ratio

C. fixed asset turnover ratio

D. activity ratio

Correct : A. inventory turnover ratio

62. The main aim of the ratio analysis is to help the ______ of the firm

A. owners

B. officials

C. departments

D. management

Correct : D. management

63. Ratios indicate trends in important items and this helps in _________

A. forecasting

B. reporting

C. analyzing

D. interpreting

Correct : A. forecasting

64. Ratios help the management in evolving market strategies through ________

A. inter firm comparison

B. intra firm comparison

C. ratios

D. none of the above

Correct : A. inter firm comparison

65. Ratios may be used as a measure of ________

A. efficiency

B. solvency

C. profitability

D. none of the above

Correct : A. efficiency

66. An example of Balance Sheet ratio is _______

A. net profit ratio

B. inventory turnover ratio

C. current ratio

D. fixed asset turnover ratio

Correct : C. current ratio

67. Income statement ratios are also called

A. operating ratio

B. liquidity ratio

C. activity ratio

D. trend ratio

Correct : A. operating ratio

68. Leverage ratios are also known as _______ ratios

A. short term solvency ratios

B. long term solvency ratios

C. solvency ratio

D. liquidity ratio

Correct : B. long term solvency ratios

69. The ratios that shows the capacity of the business unit to meet its short term obligation out of its short term resources is known as ______

A. solvency ratio

B. leverage ratio

C. liquidity ratio

D. trend ratio

Correct : C. liquidity ratio

70. The ratio that highlight the end result of business activities are known as ________ ratios

A. liquidity

B. leverage

C. activity

D. profitability

Correct : D. profitability

71. The ideal current ratio is

A. 2:1

B. 1:1

C. 1:2

D. 1:3

Correct : A. 2:1

72. In a sound business, acid test ratio ________ is considered satisfactory

A. 1:2

B. 2:1

C. 1:1

D. 0.5:1

Correct : C. 1:1

73. Satisfactory level of debt equity ratio is _________.

A. 1:1

B. 3:1

C. 2:1

D. 1:2

Correct : C. 2:1

74. The ratio which indicates how quickly debtors are converted into cash is ________.

A. receivable turnover ratio

B. inventory turnover ratio

C. working capital turnover ratio

D. creditors turnover ratio

Correct : A. receivable turnover ratio

75. Net capital employed is equal to ______.

A. total assets minus liabilities

B. fixed asset plus net working capital

C. total asset minus long-term liabilities

D. total assets

Correct : B. fixed asset plus net working capital

76. Lower stock turnover ratio indicates ________.

A. solvency position

B. monopoly situation

C. over investment in inventory

D. none of these

Correct : C. over investment in inventory

77. Market price per share divided by earnings per share is ________.

A. price earning ratio

B. return on equity

C. market test ratio

D. book value per share

Correct : A. price earning ratio

78. When all debentures are redeemed, balance in the Debenture Redemption Fund Account is transferred to:

A. capital reserve

B. general reserve

C. profit & loss appropriation a/c

D. none of these

Correct : B. general reserve

79. According to SEBI guidelines, a Company will have to create debenture redemption reserve equivalent to the amount of the following percentage of debenture issued:

A. 50%

B. 25%

C. 70%

D. 100%

Correct : B. 25%

80. Premium on redemption of debentures is a

A. personal a/c

B. real a/c

C. nominal a/c

D. suspense a/c

Correct : A. personal a/c

81. Debentures cannot be redeemed at

A. par

B. premium

C. discount

D. more than 10% premium

Correct : C. discount

82. Sources of finance of the redemption of debentures are:

A. redemption out of profits

B. redemption out of capital

C. the proceeds from fresh issue of shares/debentures

D. all the above

Correct : D. all the above

83. Which of the following is not shown on the liability side of a balance sheet of a company

A. authorized capital

B. issued capital

C. paid up capital

D. reserve capital

Correct : D. reserve capital

84. Share application account is a….

A. nominal

B. real

C. personal

D. none of these

Correct : C. personal

85. Penalty for delay in refunding application money

A. 6%

B. 5%

C. 15%

D. 20%

Correct : C. 15%

86. Conversion of physical shares in to electronic securities is called….

A. dematerialization

B. price rigging

C. re-materialization

D. none of these

Correct : A. dematerialization

87. Public limited companies cannot issue ….

A. equity shares

B. deferred shares

C. preference shares

D. right shares

Correct : B. deferred shares

88. Preference shareholders are …. of the company

A. creditors

B. owners

C. customers

D. borrowers

Correct : B. owners

89. The minimum share application money is….

A. Re.1 /share

B. 5% of the face value of share

C. 10% of the issue price of share

D. none of these

Correct : B. 5% of the face value of share

90. The difference between subscribed capital and called capital is known as…..

A. calls in advance

B. paid up capital

C. uncalled capital

D. calls in arrear

Correct : C. uncalled capital

91. The rate of discount on issue of shares should not exceed …. % of the nominal value of shares.

A. 10

B. 2

C. 4

D. 5

Correct : A. 10

92. On calls in advance, interest is payable @ ….

A. 5%

B. 6%

C. 4%

D. Nil

Correct : B. 6%

93. Right shares are those shares which are issued to

A. directors

B. promoters

C. existing shareholders

D. none of these

Correct : C. existing shareholders

94. After completing ….years a company can issue shares at discount.

A. 2

B. 3

C. 1

D. 4

Correct : C. 1

95. The profit on reissue of shares is transferred to ….

A. general reserve

B. capital reserve

C. P/L Account

D. P/L Appropriation account

Correct : B. capital reserve

96. Voluntary return of shares by shareholders to the company for cancellation is called

A. transfer of shares

B. forfeiture of shares

C. surrender of shares

D. buyback of shares

Correct : C. surrender of shares

97. The minimum amount of capital which must be subscribed by the public before allotment is called

A. allotment money

B. Minimum subscription

C. subscribed capital

D. None of these

Correct : B. Minimum subscription

98. Stock is a consolidation of …..Shares.

A. partly paid shares

B. fully paid shares.

C. equity shares

D. Sweat shares

Correct : B. fully paid shares.

99. That part of the capital which will be called up only in the event of winding up of the company is called ------- capital

A. issued

B. paid-up

C. reserve

D. uncalled

Correct : C. reserve

100. Preference share holders are entitled to a fixed rate of -------

A. interest

B. dividend

C. coupon

D. capital

Correct : B. dividend