1. Costs that are not directly related to the products or services of the project, but are indirectly related to performing the project.
Correct : D. Indirect Costs
2. Relationship based on unrelated level of activity and past data of cost is measured with
help of
Correct : A. cost estimation
3. In estimation of cost functions, variations in a single activity level represents the
Correct : A. related total costs
4. The latest finish time for an activity:
Correct : A. Equals the min. of LFT − t for all immediate successors
5. Which of the following statements is true?
Correct : B. PERT is considered as a probabilistic techniques and CPM is considered as a deterministic approach.
6. In corporate costs, cost incurred to finance construction of new equipment are classified as
Correct : A. treasury costs
7. An uncertain event or condition that, if it occurs, has a positive or negative effect on a project objectives is termed.
Correct : C. Risk
8. The cost impact of a risk event occurring as a project proceeds through its life cycle tends to
Correct : A. Slowly rise
9. Evaluation process of proposed projects or groups of projects is known as:
Correct : C. Project selection
10. Nature of interrelationships between components in a system defines the
Correct : B. Structure of system
11. Listing goals of each existing and proposed project is first step in
Correct : D. Identification of project categories
12. For any project word objective is held to be synonymous with
Correct : A. Fact
13. Which of these is not one of the constraints of a project?
Correct : C. Team
14. Which of the following is not correct about initial phase of a project?
Correct : A. The cost associated at the beginning of the project is highest.
15. Which is the first stage in the project management model?
Correct : A. Understanding the project environment
16. A clear hierarchy of objectives in the project definition would NOT normally contain:
Correct : D. Control mechanisms
17. Which of the following is a factor that influences project selection?
Correct : D. All of the above
18. The primary deliverable from the project identification and selection phase is a:
Correct : A. schedule of specific IS development projects.
19. When classifying and ranking projects, which of the following refers to the amount and type of resources the project requires and their availability?
Correct : C. Resource availability
20. When classifying and ranking projects, which of the following refers to the extent to which the project is viewed as helping the organization achieve its strategic objectives and longterm goals?
Correct : C. Strategic alignment
21. During feasibility analysis it is necessary to examine several alternative solutions because
(i) a comparison of alternatives will lead to a cost-effective solution
(ii) a pre-conceived single solution may turn out to be unimplementable
(iii) it is always good to examine alternatives
(iv) management normally looks at alternatives
Correct : C. i and ii
22. Goals are identified by
Correct : B. pinpointing unsatisfactory performance
23. By technical feasibility of a solution we mean that
Correct : A. technology is available to implement it
24. By operational feasibility we mean
Correct : C. the system can be adapted by an organization without major disruptions
25. By economic feasibility of a system we mean that
Correct : D. finances are available to implement the system and it will be cost – effective
26. The following are the most important points of a detailed system proposal
(i) who will supply and install the required equipment
(ii) cost-benefit analysis
(iii) comparison of alternative solutions
(iv) implementation plan
Correct : C. ii, iii and iv
27. At the end of the feasibility study the systems analyst
Correct : B. gives a summary feasibility report to the management
28. The process of determining whether an entrepreneur's idea is a viable foundation for creating a successful business is known as a:
Correct : A. feasibility analysis
29. A cost-benefit analysis is performed to assess
Correct : A. economic feasibility
30. The primary objective of cost-benefit analysis is
Correct : C. to determine if it is economically worthwhile to invest in developing the information system
31. The following assumptions are made in case of break even analysis, except
Correct : B. All variable costs are fixed
32. At breakeven point there is
Correct : C. No profit or loss
33. Which of the following should be taken into account when planning a project?
Correct : D. All of the above
34. Improvement efforts are determined by:
Correct : D. All of the above
35. Performance measurement is:
Correct : B. The process of quantifying action.
36. Performance relating to the five operations’ objectives can be plotted on which type of diagram?
Correct : C. Polar
37. Which kind of standards are those that are set arbitrarily to reflect some level of performance that is regarded as appropriate or reasonable?
Correct : B. Target performance standards
38. For a police department, using competitor performance standards, a competitor might be:
Correct : D. All of the above
39. What approach is used to compare organisation operations with those of other companies?
Correct : C. Benchmarking
40. The origins of benchmarking as it is used today go back to which company?
Correct : C. Xerox
41. A comparison between operations or parts of operations that are within the same total organisation is called:
Correct : A. Internal benchmarking
42. Benchmarking against external organisations that do not compete directly in the same markets is called:
Correct : A. Non-competitive benchmarking
43. Which of the following is regarded as a fundamental flaw in the whole concept of
benchmarking?
Correct : A. It limits improvements to currently accepted methods of operating.
44. What matrix positions each factor according to its performance and its importance?
Correct : C. Importance performance matrix
45. What do the letter ‘D’ and ‘I’ stand for in Deming’s cycle of improvement?
Correct : D. Define and improve
46. Ishikawa Diagrams are another name for what technique of improvement?
Correct : A. Cause-effect diagrams
47. The principles of the business process re-engineering (BPR) approach do NOT include:
Correct : B. Scrapping any process line over two years old and starting again from scratch.
48. Qualifying competitive factors are those which:
Correct : D. May not win extra business if the operation improves its performance but can certainly lose business if performance falls below a particular point.
49. Which of the following is not a tool and technique used in the process of Plan Risk Responses
Correct : C. Risk and Impact Matrix
50. During which stage of Risk planning are modeling techniques used to determine overall effects of risks on project objectives for high probability, high impact risks?
Correct : D. Perform Quantitative risk analysis
51. Supplier risk is highest with ___________.
Correct : C. Firm fixed price contract.
52. You have just completed Qualitative Risk Analysis of the project. What should you be
doing next?
Correct : B. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis
53. Risk Management Plan may include
Correct : A. Budgeting, Timing, Thresholds, Methodology
54. Reserve analysis is NOT a Tool/Technique in which of the following processes?
Correct : D. Activity Resource Estimation
55. Which of the following is not a tool or technique used during the Risk Quantification Process?
Correct : B. Contingency planning
56. Risk management is responsibility of the
Correct : D. Project team
57. What is associated with product risk?
Correct : D. Test object
58. A ____________ is a temporary endeavor undertaken to create a unique product service or
result.
Correct : D. Project
59. Assembling project team and assigning their responsibilities are done during which phase
of a project management?
Correct : A. Initiation
60. The basic nature of a project is a/an _____ one.
Correct : B. temporary
61. The structure of a project will vary depending on the _________to provide.
Correct : A. benefits it is intended
62. A process that involves continuously improving and detailing a plan as more detail become
available is termed as
Correct : D. progressive elaboration
63. A program is usually a group of
Correct : C. related projects
64. Which from the following statement(s) is/are NOT true?
I. Projects have defined objectives
II. Programs have a larger scope than projects
III. The projects and programs in a portfolio must be directly related
Correct : C. III only
65. Projects management is divided in _____ process groups.
Correct : A. 5
66. ____________are avoided by providing more tangible and objective results troughout the
life cycle.
Correct : A. Adversarial stakeholder relationship
67. .If any one factor of a project changes, _____ other factor(s) is/are likely to be affected.
Correct : C. at least one
68. Business Value =
Correct : D. Tangible Elements + Intangible Elements
69. Which from the following is NOT a tangible element?
Correct : B. Trademarks
70. A horizontal bar chart that shows project tasks against a calendar is called
Correct : C. Gantt chart
71. Which from the following represents the correct project cycle?
Correct : C. Initiating→Planning→Executing→Closing
72. The strategy used to correct resource over-allocations by balancing demand for resources
and the available supply is known as
Correct : B. resource leveling
73. The statistical tool that depicts a project’s tasks and the relationships between those tasks is known as
Correct : D. PERT chart
74. Which of the following is NOT a part of project management?
Correct : D. All above are parts
75. The scope of the work is defined in which phase of the project management?
Correct : A. Initiating
76. How the project work will be carried out, monitored, and controlled? These questions are
answered in which phase of the project management?
Correct : B. Planning
77. The review of the successes and the mistakes is normally held during _____ phase.
Correct : D. closure
78. The business case and the justification for the project is determined during the _____
phase.
Correct : A. initiation
79. According to Olivier Mesly, the 4 P’s critical for the success of a project are:
Correct : B. plan, processes, people, power
80. Developing a technology is an example of
Correct : B. Project
81. The project life cycle consists of
Correct : D. All of the above
82. Following is(are) the responsibility(ies) of the project manager.
Correct : D. All of the above
83. Following are the phases of Project Management Life Cycle. Arrange them in correct
order Design, 2. Marketing, 3. Analysis and evaluation, 4. Inspection, testing and delivery
Correct : A. 3-2-1-4
84. Design phase consist of
Correct : C. Both (A) and (B)
85. Project performance consists of
Correct : D. All of the above
86. Five dimensions that must be managed on a project
Correct : B. Features, Quality, Cost, Schedule, Staff
87. Resorce requirement in project becomes constant while the project is in its _____ progress
stage.
Correct : D. 80 to 95%
88. The probability of completing the project can be estimated based upon the ____ .
Correct : B. Normal distribution curve.
89. In the initial stage of the project the probability of completing the project is ___ .
Correct : C. Low
90. Each component of the software product is separately estimated and the results aggregated
to produce an estimate for the overall job.
Correct : C. Bottom-up
91. Following is (are) the component(s) of risk management
Correct : D. All of the above
92. Following are the characteristics of Project Mindset.
Correct : A. Time, Responsiveness, Information sharing, Processes, structured planning
93. “Devising and maintaining a workable scheme to accomplish the business need” is
Correct : B. Planning process
94. Which one of the following is not an attribute of a project?
Correct : B. Has no definite end date
95. Which one of the following is not a characteristic of a Project?
Correct : B. Familiarity
96. _________comprehensive and flexible system for achieving, sustaining and
maximizing business success
Correct : C. Six Sigma
97. Which of the following is responsible for the quality of the project deliverables?
Correct : B. The project team
98. Which of the following is an example of internal failure cost?
Correct : A. Rework
99. QC is typically a(n) _______________ process.
Correct : D. Inspection
100. In quality management, which of the following is not an attribute of the cost of
nonconformance?