1. The Trade Unions Act came into operation from ____.
Correct : A. 1st june, 1927
2. In which year's amendment of the act was the word ‘Indian― removed?
Correct : C. 1964
3. The act came into force from ______.
Correct : B. 1st april, 1965
4. What is the minimum number of trade union members requires in registering themselves as a union?
Correct : A. 7
5. Which act in Industrial Relations defines the term trade union?
Correct : C. the trade union and labour relations (consolidation) act, 1992
6. Which of the following acts do not apply to the registered trade unions?
Correct : B. the societies registration act, 1860
7. Which of the following is an object on which general funds could be spent as per section 15 of the act?
Correct : D. all of the above
8. How many member's consent is required to change the name of the registered trade union?
Correct : D. 2/3rd of the total member
9. How many percentage of votes should be recorded when amalgamating 2 or more registered trade unions?
Correct : A. 60%
10. How many members should sign the notice of dissolution?
Correct : D. 7 members and the secretary of the trade union
11. On what grounds can a union refuse to admit a person or expel a member?
Correct : B. because of misconduct
12. -Industrial relations cover the following area(s)
Correct : D. all of the above
13. -A course on Industrial relations in its MBA programme was firstly introduced by
Correct : B. xlri jamshedpur
14. -Which of the following is not an approach to industrial relations?
Correct : D. employee’s approach
15. -Under unitary approach, industrial relation is grounded in
Correct : D. all of the above
16. -Pluralistic approach perceives ______ as legitimate representative of employee interests
Correct : A. trade unions
17. -In Marxist approach, concerns with wage related disputes are
Correct : B. secondary
18. -For the Marxists, all strikes are
Correct : A. political
19. -Which of the following is (are) not acceptable to Marxists?
Correct : D. all of the above
20. No person employed in a public utility service shall go on strike in breach of contract within ____ of giving such
a notice.
Correct : B. 6 weeks
21. Section ____ covers the definition of continuous service.
Correct : A. 25b
22. How many days of service will be termed as continuous service when working in a mine industry?
Correct : A. 190 days
23. A workmen who is employed in an industrial establishment in the place of another workman whose name is
borne on the muster rolls of the establishment is ___
Correct : C. badli workmen
24. How much compensation does the workman deserve at the time of retrenchment?
Correct : A. equivalent to 15 days average pay
25. Which section deals with compensation to workmen in case of transfer of undertakings?
Correct : B. section 25ff
26. How many days of notice period is mandatory for a workman who has been in continuous service for more
than a year while retrenchment?
Correct : A. 1 month
27. How many does notice is the employer supposed to give before closing down an establishment as per section
25FFA?
Correct : B. 60 days
28. If an undertaking is closed down on account of unavoidable circumstances, the compensation to be paid to the
workman under clause b of section 25F shall not exceed his average pay of ____.
Correct : D. 3 months
29. Which section deals with the prohibitions of lay - offs?
Correct : A. 25m
30. What is the penalty faced by an employer if he lays - off or retrenches an employee without prior permission?
Correct : D. all of the above
31. The penalty for closing an undertaking without prior notice is _____.
Correct : D. all of the above
32. What should be the percentage of "protected workmen" of the total number of workmen employed in any
establishment?
Correct : A. 1%
33. The ____________ can make rules for the distribution of protected workman among various trade unions.
Correct : C. appropriate government
34. A workmen who is a member of the executive or other office bearer of a registered trade union connected with
the establishment is _________
Correct : D. protected workmen
35. Which of the option is a matter mentioned in the jurisdiction of labour courts?
Correct : D. all of the above
36. Which of the options is a manning Is it justified? attar mentioned in the jurisdiction of labour courts?
Correct : D. leave with wages and holidays
37. Condition of service for change of which notice is to be given; is mention in which section of the act?
Correct : A. section 9a
38. Which of these is an unfair labour practice on part of the workmen?
Correct : C. indulging in coercive activities against certification of a bargaining representative
39. Which of these is an unfair labour practice on part of the employer?
Correct : D. none of the above
40. __________ and __________ are regarded as equivalent terms referring to essentially the same kind of third –
party intervention in promoting voluntary settlement of disputes.
Correct : A. mediation and conciliation
41. As per which professor the distinction between mediation and conciliation is hair - splitting?
Correct : C. prof. davey
42. The mediator has been described as a confidential _________ and an industrial diplomat.
Correct : C. adviser
43. Which are the two methods on which a conciliator relies on to resolve the disputes between two parties?
Correct : B. reasoning and persuasion
44. Which are the unique and essential characteristics of the conciliation process?
Correct : A. flexibility, informality and simplicity
45. __________ and ____________ are the two attributes which every conciliator should possess.
Correct : A. independence and impartiality
46. Choose the odd man out.
Correct : D. friendly personality
47. Which amongst these is a technique used by the conciliator?
Correct : C. listening attentively
48. ____________ is a process in which a dispute is submitted to an impartial outsider who makes a decision which
is usually binding on both the parties.
Correct : A. arbitration
49. What is the main objective of arbitration as per the Industrial Disputes Act?
Correct : C. adjudication
50. Arbitration is a _____ process, while mediation has a ____ tinge.
Correct : D. judicial and legislative
51. Which are the two traits on which the award of an arbitrator rests on?
Correct : C. equity and justice
52. The decision of the arbitrator should be based on which approach?
Correct : B. split the difference
53. The procedure is relatively _____ when compared to that in ordinary courts or labour tribunals.
Correct : A. expeditious
54. What is the main drawback of compulsory arbitration?
Correct : C. it deprives both the parties of their very important and fundamental rights
55. Which of these is a condition for which compulsory arbitration is imposed on the disputing parties?
Correct : B. disputing parties fail to arrive at a settlement by a voluntary method
56. Which of the following is a quality which should be present in a successful arbitrator?
Correct : B. knowledge of collective bargaining
57. Which are the departments from where a qualified arbitrator be hired?
Correct : D. all of the above
58. With the advocacy of __________ voluntary arbitration came into prominence for resolving industrial disputes.
Correct : B. mahatma gandhi
59. __________ reiterated the faith of the parties in voluntary arbitration.
Correct : A. the code of discipline (1958)
60. The need for a wide acceptance of voluntary arbitration was reiterated by _____.
Correct : C. indian labour conference (1962)
61. The importance of adjudication has been emphasised by the ________.
Correct : C. supreme court
62. The adjudication machinery has to consider not only the demands of _______ justice but also the claims of
national economy.
Correct : B. social
63. __________ involves intervention in the dispute by a third party appointed by the government for the purpose
of deciding the nature of final settlement.
Correct : A. adjudication
64. Who is the deciding authority to put the resolving matter into adjudication?
Correct : D. government
65. Which is the ultimate legal remedy for the settlement of an unresolved dispute?
Correct : B. adjudication
66. __________ has criticised compulsory arbitration on four main grounds.
Correct : A. alexander frey
67. A labour court shall consist of one person who has been a District Judge for a period of not less than ___
years.
Correct : A. 3 years
68. How many central government industrial tribunals cum labour courts in India?
Correct : D. 12
69. In which year did factories act come into force?
Correct : B. 1st april, 1949
70. How many days in advance does the occupier of a factory premises gives notice of occupancy to the chief
inspector?
Correct : A. 15 days
71. As per the factories act, after how many years should the factory premises be painted and refurbished?
Correct : A. 5 years
72. As per section 2 in factories act, who will be called as an adult?
Correct : D. a person who has completed 18 years of age
73. Section 2(g) under the act defines _______
Correct : B. manufacturing process
74. Maintenance of buildings ------------------- c.) Section 6
4. Protection of eyes ------------------------- d.) Section 40A
Correct : A. ) 1 - c, 2 - a, 3 - d, 4 - b
75. If there are ____ numbers of employees, then the employer has to provide a canteen.
Correct : A. 250
76. Which of the following diseases is not mentioned in the section 89 of factories act?
Correct : D. pneumonia
77. If a company has _____ number of employees, then the appointment of a safety officer is mandatory under the
factories act.
Correct : C. 1000
78. Fitness certificate granted under "sub section 2" of the act is valid for how many months?
Correct : D. 12 months
79. From the below mentioned options, which of the following is not mentioned under the welfare provision in the
factories act?
Correct : C. drinking water
80. Which section of the act covers the topic annual leave with wages?
Correct : D. section 79
81. How many hours in a week can an adult work as per factories act?
Correct : D. 48 hours
82. If there are 100 workers in a factory, then one seat is allotted to how many workers
Correct : A. 25
83. Section 99 of factories act deals with which of the following options?
Correct : B. penalty for permitting double employment of a child
84. Choose the correct option that states the type of leave facilities for a worker mentioned in the factories act?
Correct : C. annual leave with wages as per factories act
85. What is the maximum amount of fees to be paid for licensing process?
Correct : A. 5 years
86. Which section of the factories act covers the list of diseases given in the schedule?
Correct : D. section 89
87. Under section 106, a complaint must be filed within ____ months of the date when the commission of the
offence came to the knowledge of an inspector.
Correct : B. 3 months
88. Section 76 empowers the state government to make rules for _____
Correct : D. prescribing physical standards to be attained by the young persons for working in factories
89. Which of the below mentioned provisions come under safety provisions?
Correct : C. self – acting machinery
90. In cubic meters how much space is allotted to each worker after the commencement of factories act?
Correct : C. 14.2
91. In which year was the first suggestion for the legislation in the act made?
Correct : B. 1925
92. The first suggestion for legislation in the act was made by a private member's bill called __________.
Correct : C. weekly payment bill
93. Choose the correct date and year on which payment of wages act was passed?
Correct : A. 23rd april, 1936
94. In which year did the payment of wages act come into force?
Correct : D. 28th march, 1937
95. What is the maximum wage period for the payment of wages?
Correct : A. 1 month
96. In any factory or industrial establishment where less than 1000 employees are employed the wages shall be paid
before the expiry of the ____ day.
Correct : C. 7th day
97. Which of these deductions under section 7 of payment of wages act is not authorised?
Correct : D. deduction for payment of uniform and property
98. What is the maximum limit of fine to be imposed on an employee?
Correct : C. should not exceed an amount equal to 3% of the wages payable
99. Which section of the act covers deduction for damage or loss?
Correct : A. section 10
100. Deduction for services rendered --------- C. Section 7
4. Deductions from absence of duty --------- D. Section 11