Quiznetik

Corporate Accounting | Set 2

1. A contributory is:

Correct : B. A shareholder

2. A past member is not liable to contribute:

Correct : D. All of the above

3. Which of the following is not a preferential creditors:

Correct : D. Amount due to employee under amalgamation or reconstruction

4. Salaries due to clerk is preferential for a period not exceeding:

Correct : C. Four months

5. B” List of contributories are not liable:

Correct : D. All of the above

6. Which of the following is not a preferential creditors:

Correct : D. Amount due to employee under amalgamation or reconstruction

7. Preference shareholders are legally entitled to the repayment of capital in the event of liquidation of the company.

Correct : B. False

8. The …………..has a legal right of forfeiting the shares of those who fail to pay the amount due.

Correct : A. Liquidator

9. ………………….on shares have priority over payment of paid up share capital of that class.

Correct : A. Calls in advance

10. All revenue, taxes due to government within ………..before the date of commencement of winding up is preferential.

Correct : C. 30 months

11. Salaries due to director, manager, secretary etc. are preferential.

Correct : B. False

12. Amount due to workman is rank with ……………….in the event of liquidation of the company.

Correct : B. Secured creditors

13. ………………… means any person employed in any skilled or unskilled, manual, supervisory (wages less than 1600 p.m.), technical work.

Correct : A. Workman

14. A company being a creation of law cannot die a natural death. It comes to an end by law through the process of liquidation

Correct : A. True

15. If a company makes a default in delivering the to the registrar or n holding the statutory meeting, then company is compulsorily wound up by the court.

Correct : C. Statutory report

16. Creditors voluntary winding up applies to ………………. Companies

Correct : B. Insolvent

17. Spreadsheet software can be utilize to generate accounting reports.

Correct : A. True

18. A computer sometimes is also termed as 'electronic brain'

Correct : A. True

19. The idea of computers was first conceived by Charles P. Babbage in 1833.

Correct : A. True

20. Software, refers to the physical devices of a computer system

Correct : B. False

21. Consistency refers to the ability of the computers of perform a variety of tasks, simple as well as complex.

Correct : B. False

22. Connectivity is acknowledge as a . . . . . . element of the computer system.

Correct : A. Sixth

23. Where large number of accounting data is involved spreadsheet software may not work……………………………….

Correct : A. Effective

24. The Enterprise Resource Planning software are of…………………………..proposals.

Correct : A. Higher

25. Repeating the same results without any variations irrespective of the number of times the program is run is known as……………………

Correct : D. Consistency

26. In a pre-packaged accounting software reports are generated from the software could be the………………………….

Correct : A. Package

27. Computerized accounting requires transaction data to be entered into………………………

Correct : A. Accounting Package.

28. The choice of customized accounting packages is made on the basis of the………….

Correct : A. Vendor

29. The ability with which the computers remain functional to serve the user is termed as……………………………………………………

Correct : A. Reliability

30. Enterprise resource planning is an ……………………………..

Correct : B. Accounting software

31. AS400 is a ………………………………accounting software.

Correct : A. Financial

32. Internal reconstruction is a slow and tedious process since it required the approval of :

Correct : D. All of the Above.

33. If the preference shareholder agree to sacrifice the arrear off preference dividend, it is credited to:

Correct : A. Capital Reduction A/C

34. After the implementation of the scheme of internal reconstruction , any surplus in capital reduction A/C is transferred to :

Correct : D. Capital reserve A/C

35. ……………………reconstruction refers to the reduction of capital to cancel any paid up capital.

Correct : B. Internal

36. Reduction of share capital is possible by the company, if it is authorized by its:

Correct : D. All of the Above.

37. Converting share of smaller denomination into larger denominations is called:

Correct : C. Consolidation

38. Converting share of larger denomination into smaller denominations is called:

Correct : A. Sub-division

39. After the implementation of scheme of internal reconstruction, any amount left in the capital reduction A/C will be transfer to:

Correct : A. Capital Reserve A/C

40. The main purpose of internal reconstruction is to:

Correct : C. Both A&B above

41. A fair and equitable distribution of loss is the essence of a successful scheme of:

Correct : D. Internal reconstruction

42. At the time of …………………, inter company debts and acceptances are to be cancelled out.

Correct : D. Consolidation.

43. Inter- company dividends are ……………………..to the cost of investment in the subsidiary company for calculating goodwill or capital reserve.

Correct : B. Deducted

44. Holdings of minority will …………………by the number of bonus shares received by them.

Correct : A. Increase

45. Out of the unrealized profits, a holding company’s share is reduced from the stock and

Correct : A. Profit & Loss A/C

46. Investments made by a holding company in a subsidiary company are always to be shown in ……………….

Correct : B. Consolidated Balance Sheet.

47. If AB Ltd buys more than 50% of the shares in CD Ltd then which of the following statements accurately summarizes the relationship between these two firms?

Correct : C. AB Ltd is the parent undertaking

48. On a consolidated balance sheet, if the shares of a company have been bought for more than the balance sheet value then the difference would appear as:

Correct : A. Goodwill

49. Pre-acquisition profit in subsidiary company is considered as:

Correct : B. Capital Profit

50. Profit earned after acquisition of share is treated as:

Correct : A. Revenue Profit

51. Profit earned before acquisition of share is treated as:

Correct : B. Capital Profit

52. Preparation of consolidated statements as per AS 21 is :

Correct : C. Mandatory for listed companies.

53. Face value of debentures of subsidiary company, held by holding co.is deducted from:

Correct : B. Cost of Control

54. Minority Interest includes:

Correct : D. All of the above.

55. Preparation of Holding Companies Accounts Deals with :

Correct : B. AS-21

56. The time interval between the date of acquisition if shares in subsidiary company and date of balance sheet of holding company is known as :

Correct : B. Post -acquisition period.

57. Shares are to be valued on ___________.

Correct : D. All of the above

58. Quoted shares are those shares which are ___________.

Correct : A. listed on the stock exchange

59. Under net asset method, value of a share depends on ___________.

Correct : A. net assets available to equity shareholders

60. Net asset value is also called as ___________.

Correct : D. (a), (b) and (c)

61. While deciding net asset value, fictitious assets ___________.

Correct : B. should not be considered

62. Net asset value method is based on the assumption that the company is ___________.

Correct : B. going to be liquidated.

63. Yield value depends on ___________.

Correct : D. none of the above

64. F.M.P. for yield valuation is ___________.

Correct : B. profit that would be available to equity shareholders

65. Fair value of a share is equal to ___________.

Correct : C. Average of intrinsic and yield value

66. Value of a partly paid equity share is equal to ___________.

Correct : A. Value of fully paid share - calls unpaid per share

67. Investments are ………………. assets.

Correct : A. Non trading

68. ………………………….. value depends on Net assets.

Correct : C. Intrinsic value

69. Yield value depends on……………………….

Correct : A. Net profit

70. Fair value is the ……………… of intrinsic value and yield value.

Correct : A. Average

71. EPS depends on net profit available to………………. Shareholders.

Correct : A. Equity

72. F.M.P. stands for …………………

Correct : B. Future maintainable profits

73. P/E ratio is a relationship between……………….. and ……………

Correct : A. MP/ EPS

74. Intrinsic Value Method is also called as………………..

Correct : C. Asset Backing method

75. Yield value is based on the assumption that ……………….

Correct : B. Going concern

76. NRR stands for ……………………………….

Correct : A. Normal rate of return

77. Goodwill is paid for obtaining __________.

Correct : A. Future benefit

78. The company earns a net profit of 24,000 with a capital of1,20,000. The NRR is 10%. Under capitalisation of super profit, goodwill will be ___________.

Correct : A. 1,20,000

79. Gross assets are 1,01,000, fictitious assets 350 are included in the gross assets. External liabilities are 7,500. 6% preference share capital is 45,000. Equity capital is 4,500 equity shares of 10 each fully paid. Average expected profit is 8,500. Transfer to reserves is 10% preference dividend is payable. NRR is 9%. The Net Asset Value Per share is ___________.

Correct : B. 10.70

80. Fair value is not the average of intrinsic value and yield value.

Correct : B. False

81. In net Assets method all liabilities are consider.

Correct : B. False

82. How many IFRS are in force as of now?

Correct : A. 65

83. Total no of interpretations applicable till date?

Correct : C. 28

84. What is the transition date of IFRS in India?

Correct : B. april 1, 2011

85. As per IAS 1, Presentation of financial statement, ______ no of items would constitute complete set of financial statements.

Correct : D. 6

86. GAAP stands for

Correct : A. generally accepted accounting principles

87. Whether financial reviews by management, environment reports and value added financial statements are outside the scope of international financial reporting standards (IFRSs)?

Correct : A. yes

88. What is the term used to describe the time between the acquisition of assets for processing and their realization in cash or cash equivalents?

Correct : C. operating cycle

89. Which sections of an annual report do IFRSs apply to?

Correct : B. financial statements

90. How many formats are permitted for income and expense items under Ind AS 1?

Correct : B. two

91. Where should extraordinary items appear in an entity’s Statement of Comprehensive Income?

Correct : D. nowhere

92. When is offsetting permitted under Ind AS 1?

Correct : C. when required or permitted under an ifrs

93. Which of the following is not a component of a Statement of Financial Position?

Correct : C. cost of goods sold

94. Which of the following is not a requirement in the financial statements under Ind AS 1?

Correct : B. chairman’s commentary on performance

95. Under Ind AS 1 how often should financial statements be prepared?

Correct : A. at least annually

96. Correcting the recognition measurement and disclosure of amounts in financial statements as if a prior period error had never occurred. This is:

Correct : A. retrospective restatement

97. Under Ind AS 16 how often the useful life of an asset should be reviewed?

Correct : A. at least at each financial year end

98. Under Ind AS 16 if an asset is idle

Correct : D. depreciation continues

99. Which of these is an allowable cost of an asset under Ind AS 16?

Correct : B. professional fees

100. What is the net amount an entity expects to obtain for an asset at the end of its useful life?

Correct : B. residual value