1. An unlawful act by which an intending purchaser is prevented from bidding or raising the
price at an auction sale is known as
Correct : C. damping
2. The right of lien is exercised
Correct : A. to retain possession of goods
3. Which of the following rights are available to the unpaid seller against the buyer
Correct : D. all of these
4. Delivery of the key of the warehouse by the seller to the buyer will amount to
Correct : B. symbolic delivery
5. In case the buyer rejects the whole quantity of goods due to short delivery or excess
delivery, the contract is treated as
Correct : A. subsisting
6. The effect of refusal to accept a properly made offer of performance is that:
Correct : A. the promisor is not responsible for non-performance and can sue the promisee for the breach of contract.
7. In which of the following circumstances a contract can be treated as discharged under the
concept of supervening impossibility?
Correct : B. change in import policy
8. The consent is said to be free when:
Correct : C. it is not the result of coercion or undue influence or fraud or misrepresentation or
9. Which of the following may employ an agent?
Correct : C. any person who is of the age of majority according to the law to which he is subject and who is of sound mi
10. Fraud means
Correct : D. all of the above
11. The Sale of Goods Act, 1930 came into force on
Correct : A. 1st day of july 1930
12. Which law governs the sale of movable property in India?
Correct : B. sale of goods act, 1930
13. A contract of sale may be
Correct : D. either (a) & (b)
14. ‘Delivery’ within the meaning of the Sale of Goods Act can be
Correct : D. either (a) or (b) or (c)
15. The term ‘possession of goods’ means
Correct : B. custody of goods
16. The term ‘Goods’ in the Sale of Goods Act means
Correct : A. subject matter of the contract of sale
17. The goods which are to be produced by the seller after the contract of sale is made are
known as
Correct : C. future goods
18. Where money is exchanged by one person for some money with another person, the
transaction is known as
Correct : B. exchange
19. A Sale of Goods under the Sale of Goods Act, 1930 includes
Correct : B. a jus in rem
20. Where no price is fixed by express agreement, the buyer shall pay the seller
Correct : B. reasonable price
21. A stipulation in a contract may be
Correct : D. both (a) & (b)
22. A ‘Condition’ under the Sale of Goods Act has been defined as a stipulation
Correct : C. essential to the main purpose of the contract
23. Which of the following is correct?
Correct : B. a warranty is a stipulation, collateral to the main purpose of the contract.
24. When the buyer’s right of quiet possession of goods is affected by the seller’s fault, the
buyer can
Correct : B. claim for damages
25. The buyer shall have and enjoy quiet possession of goods. This is an __________
Correct : C. implied warranty as to possession
26. The general rule is that the buyer of goods is responsible for his choice or selection. This
doctrine is
Correct : D. caveat emptor
27. The process of identifying the goods and setting apart is called
Correct : C. ascertainment
28. ‘Nemo Dat Quod Non Habet’ means
Correct : A. no man can pass a better title than what he himself possesses.
29. According to the Sale of Goods Act ‘fault’ means
Correct : C. any wrongful act or default
30. An unpaid seller loses his right of lien in case of
Correct : D. any of the above
31. An unpaid seller can exercise his right of stoppage of goods in transit
Correct : D. either (a) or (b) or (c)
32. Auction sale is also known as
Correct : A. public sale
33. Where the seller appoints his person to bid at the auction sale without informing to bidder, it
is called as
Correct : B. pretend bidding
34. In contract through sea route, where the seller has to put the goods on board a ship at his
own expenses, the contract is known as
Correct : B. fob contract
35. In a contract through sea route where the seller has to deliver the goods to the buyer at the
port of destination
Correct : C. ex-ship contract
36. The remedies available to a person, suffering from the breach of contract are
Correct : D. all of the above
37. Where the court orders the defaulting party to carry out the promise according to the terms
of the contract, it is called as a/an
Correct : D. specific performance
38. _________ means an order of the court restraining a person from doing what he promised
not to do
Correct : C. specific performance
39. Quantum meruit means
Correct : C. as much as is earned
40. Hadley versus Baxendale case is a leading case on
Correct : C. the remoteness of damages
41. Exemplary damage is also known as
Correct : D. either (a) or (b)
42. Vindictive damages have been awarded
Correct : C. either (a) or (b)
43. Liquidated damages means an amount of the _________ that may result from the breach of
contract
Correct : C. pre-estimated probable loss
44. A stipulation for increased interest from the date of default is known as
Correct : D. damages
45. A quasi-contract
Correct : D. is not any of these
46. Claim for necessaries supplied to a person incompetent to contract, from the property of
such person. It is covered under the concept of
Correct : A. quasi-contract
47. A finder of goods
Correct : C. a person who finds the goods belonging to another and takes them into his custody
48. A contract in which one person promises to compensate the other for the loss suffered by
him, due to the conduct of the promisor or of any other person, is known as
Correct : A. contract of indemnity
49. The party who gives the indemnity is known as
Correct : B. the indemnifier
50. A contract in which a person promises to discharge the liability of another person, in case of
default by such person, is known as a
Correct : C. contract of guarantee
51. In a contract of guarantee, a person who promises to discharge another’s liability is known
as
Correct : D. the surety
52. Liability of the surety is
Correct : A. coextensive with the principal debtor
53. A surety is discharged from the liability by
Correct : D. all of the above
54. The delivery of goods by one person to another for some specific purpose is known as a
Correct : A. bailment
55. The delivery of goods by one person to another as a security for the repayment of a debt is
known as a
Correct : C. pledge
56. Which of the following persons does not have a right of general lien?
Correct : C. finder of goods
57. X lent his car to his friend Y for two days without any charges. It is a
Correct : B. gratuitous bailemnt
58. Out of following, which is/are duty of a bailee?
Correct : B. to take a reasonable care
59. Out of following, which is/are rights of a bailee?
Correct : D. all of the above
60. A person appointed to contract on behalf of another person is known as a/an
Correct : B. agent
61. A mercantile agent to whom the possession of the goods is given for the purpose of selling
the same is known as a/an
Correct : B. factor
62. Which of the following is not a right of the agent?
Correct : D. right to make secret profits
63. A person appointed by the original agent to act in the business of the agency but under the
control of the original agent is known as a/an
Correct : B. sub-agent
64. Where the agent contracts for a principal, who is not competent to contract, in such a case
the agent is
Correct : A. personally liable
65. Substituted agent is appointed by whom?
Correct : C. principal
66. What is the name given to an agency which cannot be terminated?
Correct : B. irrevocable agency
67. A surety is NOT discharged from his liability:
Correct : C. if the creditor releases the other co-surety.
68. Cosumer Protection Act is applicable on-
Correct : C. restrictive trade practices
69. In District Forum in addition to President, minimum members are-
Correct : B. two
70. Jurisdiction of State Commission is-
Correct : D. none of these
71. Age of a member of State Commission must be not less than-
Correct : C. 35 years
72. An appellant would be-
Correct : D. all of above.
73. The provisions of Consumer Protection Act is applicable
Correct : D. goods and services
74. Under the Consumer Protection Act, complainant means
Correct : C. both (a) & (b)
75. Consumer disputes redressal agencies include _________
Correct : D. all of the above
76. District Forum shall have same power as are vested in the _________
Correct : A. civil court
77. Which relief can be obtained by consumers from commission?
Correct : D. all of the above
78. In a contract of sale of goods, condition as to merchantable quality of goods applies
Correct : D. all of the above
79. When a person has done some work under a contract and the other party repudiates the
contract, then the party who performed the work can claim remuneration for the work done. This is based on the principle of
Correct : B. quantum meruit
80. X contract to deliver 1000 bags of wheat at Rs. 100 per bag on a future date. On the due
date, he refuses to deliver. The market price on that day is Rs. 120 per bag. Which damages can be granted by the court
Correct : A. Ordinary damage
81. Under the pledge, the person who pledges is known as a pledgor and the bailee is known as
a
Correct : C. pledgee
82. The Information Technology Act, 2000 come into force on :
Correct : B. 17th October, 2000
83. The Information Technology Act shall not apply to
Correct : D. all of the above
84. A person who is intended by the originator to receive the electronic record is, under the IT
Act, known as
Correct : C. addressee
85. Any person who on behalf of another person receives, stores or transmits a message is,
under the IT Act, known as
Correct : A. intermediary
86. The key of a pair used to create a digital signature is known as
Correct : B. private key
87. The key of a key pair used to verify a digital signature
Correct : A. public key
88. The Digital Signature Certificate under the IT Act, 2000 is issued by the :
Correct : B. Certifying Authority
89. An electronic record, under the IT Act, 2000, can be authenticated by the subscriber by:
Correct : A. affixing his digital signature
90. An application for the issue of Digital Signature Certificate should be accompanied by the
prescribed fee not exceeding
Correct : C. Rs. 25,000
91. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
Correct : D. The Digital Signature Certificate once issued cannot be revoked by the Certifying Authority as the power of revocation is vested in the Cyber Appellate Tribunal
92. An adjudicating officer, under the IT Act, 2000, for holding inquiry and imposing penalty is
appointed by the
Correct : B. Central Government
93. Any person who, without the permission of the owner, damages any computer, computer
system or computer network shall be liable to pay damages by way of compensation under the IT Act, 2000 upto:
Correct : C. one crore rupees
94. The Information Technology Act is popularly known as
Correct : A. cyber law
95. Key pair includes
Correct : C. both (a) & (b)
96. __________ is the unique value for message or content
Correct : C. Message digest
97. The electronic governance means and includes
Correct : D. both (a) & (b)
98. What are the benefits of electronic governance?
Correct : D. all of the above
99. Appeal can be made to the ___________ against the order of appellate tribunal
Correct : C. High Court
100. Appeal can be made to high court against the order of appellate tribunal within ____ days.