2. ------------- project interfaces with the organization.
Correct : A. information system
3. In product-driven projects, the objectives of the project are defined in terms of
___________.
Correct : C. functional and quality requirements.
4. __________ is record of how much the organization is willing to spend on the
system.
Correct : A. resource requirements
5. Projects are __________ by definition and therefore more uncertain than normal
undertakings.
Correct : B. non-routine
6. The project deliverable is supplied to customers release by release in a scheduled
time intervals is referred as
Correct : B. incremental delivery
7. Expand CCTA
Correct : B. central computer and telecommunications agency
8. _________ standards should be in place to ensure that changes to requirements are
implemented in a safe and orderly way.
Correct : A. change control and configuration management
9. The organization as part of its monitoring and control policy may have a ________
in place which dictates that certain statistics have to be collected at various stages of a
project.
Correct : A. measurement programme.
10. The products handed over to the clients at the end of projects are called as
_____________.
Correct : C. deliverables.
11. The relationship between program design and program specification can be
portrayed in _________.
Correct : B. product flow diagram
12. _________ time is the time between start and end of a task.
Correct : B. elapsed.
13. Project planning is an _________ process.
Correct : B. iterative.
14. _______ is a collection of projects that all contribute to the same overall
organizational goals.
Correct : C. programme.
15. The standard way of evaluating the economic benefits of any projects is to carry
out a ________ analysis.
Correct : B. cost-benefit.
16. The costs that include the salaries and other employment costs of the staff involved
in the project development and all associated costs are called____________.
Correct : B. development cost.
17. Longer term benefits that are considered very difficult to quantify are called
_______ .
Correct : D. intangible benefits.
18. ____________ will indicate when expenditure and income will take place.
Correct : A. cash flow forecast.
19. _________ is the time taken to break even or pay back the initial investment.
Correct : B. payback period.
20. The calculation of __________ is a project evaluation technique that takes into
account the profitability of a project and the timing of cash flows that are produced.
Correct : A. npv.
21. Number of interrelated activities can be organized in different ways are called
______.
Correct : D. process model.
22. RAD stands for _________.
Correct : C. rapid application development.
23. JAD stands for ____________.
Correct : D. joint application development.
24. The alternate name for Waterfall model is _________.
Correct : D. one-shot model
25. The first phase of waterfall model is ____________.
Correct : B. feasibility study.
26. An Elaboration of Waterfall which stresses the necessity for validation
activities is known as __________.
Correct : C. v-process model.
27. The spiral model is originated by __________.
Correct : A. b.w.boehm.
28. _______ is a working model of one or more aspects of the projected
system.
Correct : D. software prototyping.
29. In Software Prototype, ___________ means copies of input screens are
shown to the users on a workstation, but the screens cannot actually be used.
Correct : C. mock-ups.
30. In software prototype, partial working model is classified into ________.
Correct : A. vertical and horizontal.
31. SSADM means ___________.
Correct : B. structured systems analysis design method.
32. Which are the two levels of development suggested by Booch ?
Correct : C. internal and external processes.
33. 'Work expands to fill the time available" is _________ law.
Correct : C. parkinson\s.
34. The statement "Putting more people on a late job makes it later" is from
_________ law.
Correct : A. brooks.
35. KLOC indicates ___________.
Correct : C. thousand lines of code.
36. Effort = __________.
Correct : A. system size x productivity rate.
37. UFP indicates ________.
Correct : D. unadjusted function points.
38. PERT is _________.
Correct : C. program evaluation and review technique.
39. The activities have zero duration but are assumed to start at the same time
as the first and the end at the same time as the last one is called__________
activity.
Correct : C. hammocked.
40. _________ activities on the network diagram have zero duration and use no
resources.
Correct : B. dummy.
41. Every risk is associated with a likely problem and an _______.
Correct : C. action plan.
42. Risk Management consists of ____________.
Correct : D. risk control, planning, identification and monitoring.
43. Ranking of the risks and determining risk aversion strategies is called
_______.
Correct : D. risk evaluation.
44. ________ = risk likelihood X risk impact.
Correct : D. risk exposure.
45. Ranking of the risks and determining risk aversion strategies is called
________.
Correct : D. risk evaluation.
46. The shortest time in which we could expect to complete the activity, barring
outright miracles are called ________.
Correct : A. optimistic time.
47. "Each activity has been scheduled to start at its earliest start date" is called
as_________.
Correct : A. likelihood.
48. In _________, the priority activities are allocated resources in ascending
order of total. float.
Correct : B. total float.
49. _______ is an activity bar chart indicating scheduled activity dates and
durations frequently augmented with activity floats.
Correct : A. bar chart.
50. The priorities we might apply in deciding levels in monitoring is called as
______.
Correct : B. prioritized monitoring.
51. __________ relates to the physical resources used when the software is
executed.
Correct : D. efficiency.
52. Recruitment and training cost falls under _______ cost.
Correct : D. setup.
53. ________ are commonly published as lists or charts.
Correct : B. work plans.
54. Which type of risk factor is most likely to cause problems for a software
project developing commercial software?
Correct : A. inadequate user documentation.
55. Defect prevention is defined as ____________.
Correct : B. finding and fixing errors before release but after insertion.
56. CPM is an acronym for _______.
Correct : B. critical path method.
57. The time by which an activity may be delayed without affecting any
subsequent activity is called _________.
Correct : C. free float
58. The objective of ________ is to avoid or minimize the adverse effects of
unforeseen events.
Correct : A. risk management.
59. Which form of software development model is most suited to a system
where all the requirements are known at the start of a project and remain
stable throughout the project?
Correct : A. waterfall model.
60. __________ relates to the ability of the software to be transferred to a
different environment.
Correct : A. portability.
61. Which of the following is NOT part of a software quality assurance plan?
Correct : C. supplier control.
62. Who is NOT usually present in a technical review?
Correct : C. the programming tools supplier.
63. The expectancy theory of motivation will focus on ________.
Correct : A. instrumentality.
64. Herzberg's theory is ________.
Correct : C. 2-factor theory.
65. The saying "Cannot see the wood for the trees" is associated with ______.
Correct : B. information overload.
66. Closing the project involves _______.
Correct : D. identifying follow-on actions.
67. Ensuring that all the loose ends of a project are tied up is called as
___________.
Correct : D. decommissioning.
68. A Quality specification is otherwise known as ____________.
Correct : A. allocation specification.
69. USDP means ________.
Correct : A. unified software development process
70. The percentage of a particular time interval that a system is usable is
called _____.
Correct : B. availability.
71. BS EN ISO 9001:2000 is a _____.
Correct : A. external standard.
72. CMM is acronym of __________.
Correct : A. capability maturity model.
73. The inspection is led by ________, who has had specific training in the
technique.
Correct : C. a moderator.
74. Clean-room software development is created by _______.
Correct : D. harlan mills.
75. _________ is a technique particularly associated with quality circles.
Correct : D. brain storming.
76. _________ assesses the quality of a software product.
Correct : C. independent evaluators.
77. In PRINCE 2, 2 is meant for ______.
Correct : C. version.
78. ________ is needed to ensure that the project remains under control and
that it continues to meet its business justification.
Correct : C. red tape.
79. Cost Benefit Analysis is done for ___________ feasibility.
Correct : D. economical.
80. _______ is classified into Functional and Non-functional.
Correct : B. requirements.
81. ________ is some thing that is described by a set of attributes (data items)
and that will be manipulated within the software (system).
Correct : C. object.
82. A _________ contains a set of attributes that act as an aspect, quality,
characteristic, or descriptor of the object.
Correct : B. data object.
83. ________ is the diagrammatic form for Flow oriented Modelling.
Correct : C. data flow diagrams.
84. _________ is the sub-characteristics of efficiency.
Correct : C. resource utilization.
85. Level 0 data flow diagrams are otherwise known as _______ .
Correct : D. context flow diagrams.
86. _______ refers to the ability of the software to interact with other
systems.
Correct : A. interoperability.
87. _______ is a modular building block for computer software.
Correct : D. component.
88. A ________ specification is concerned with how much is to spent on the
system.
Correct : C. resource.
89. A ________ specification is concerned with how well the functions are to
operate.
Correct : B. quality.
90. _______ is a qualitative measure of the degree to which classes are
connected to one another.
Correct : B. coupling.
91. In _________ stage, the entry, exit and process requirements are
identified for each activity.
Correct : D. identify the products and activities of the project.
92. ___________ is also a part of design modelling.
Correct : A. user interface design.
93. Deployment diagrams illustrate the ________ view of the system.
Correct : A. dynamic.
94. The problems experienced in the survey of managers published by Thayer,
Pyster and Wood include_________.
Correct : D. both a and b.
95. PRINCE means _____________
Correct : D. projects in controlled environments
96. Which forms the basis for management control of software project?
Correct : C. process.
97. Requirements engineering provides the mechanism for _________.
Correct : D. all of the above .
98. When a customer does not identify a detailed input, processing or output
requirements, _______ model is used.
Correct : A. prototyping.
99. Projects lies between ___________.
Correct : A. job & exploration
100. Expand the mnemonic SMART _________________
Correct : A. specific, measurable, achievable, relevant, time constrained.