Quiznetik
Indian Constitution and Politics | Set 3
1. The chairman of the National Development Council is the
A. Prime Minister
B. President
C. Vice President
D. Governor
Correct : A. Prime Minister
2. Who appoints the chairman of the Finance Commission
A. The President
B. Prime Minister
C. Council of Ministers
D. Vice President
Correct : A. The President
3. The members of the Council of states in India is elected for a period of
A. 4 years
B. 5 years
C. 6 years
D. life term
Correct : C. 6 years
4. The President can’t --------------------- Lok Sabha
A. Dissolve
B. adjourn
C. prorogue
D. summon
Correct : B. adjourn
5. The duration of an ordinance issued by the President of India is
A. 6weeks
B. 1 year
C. 6 months
D. 6 weeks from the date of assembly of the Parliament
Correct : D. 6 weeks from the date of assembly of the Parliament
6. All speeches made in the House of People are addressed to
A. The Prime Minister
B. The Speaker
C. Minister for Parliamentary Affairs
D. Respective Ministers
Correct : B. The Speaker
7. Who promulgates ordinance in states
A. Governor
B. Chief Minister
C. President
D. Chief Justice
Correct : A. Governor
8. Who presides over the joint sitting of the Parliament
A. President
B. Vice President
C. Speaker
D. Chief Justice
Correct : C. Speaker
9. The amending power of the Constitution of India is described in Article
A. 352
B. 368
C. 360
D. 395
Correct : B. 368
10. The ex-officio chairman of the Council of states is
A. Speaker
B. Vice President
C. Deputy Speaker
D. Deputy Chairman
Correct : B. Vice President
11. In India the Council of state is responsible to
A. The people
B. the state
C. local government
D. None of these
Correct : B. the state
12. The number of the Anglo Indians nominated to the House of People is
A. 4
B. 3
C. 2
D. 1
Correct : C. 2
13. The number of nominated members to the council of states is
A. 18
B. 12
C. 20
D. 16
Correct : B. 12
14. The number of elected members to the House of the People
A. 540
B. 542
C. 543
D. 545
Correct : C. 543
15. Who was the chairman of the Constitution Drafting Committee
A. Jawahar Lal Nehru
B. Dr B.R. Ambedkar
C. Dr Rajendra Prasad
D. Sardar Vallabhai Patel
Correct : B. Dr B.R. Ambedkar
16. How many methods are there to amend the Constitution of India
A. 5
B. 4
C. 3
D. 2
Correct : C. 3
17. Quo warranto is
A. Writ
B. statute
C. Treaty
D. Act
Correct : A. Writ
18. Article 352 of the Indian Constitution deal with
A. centre-state relations
B. Supreme Court
C. state emergency
D. national emergency
Correct : D. national emergency
19. Which Right was remarked by Dr B.R. Ambedkar as the “heart and soul of the Constitution”
A. Right to Equality
B. Right to Freedom
C. Right to Education
D. Right to Constitutional remedies
Correct : D. Right to Constitutional remedies
20. The Indian constitution guarantees how many categories of Fundamental Rights
A. 5
B. 6
C. 7
D. 8
Correct : B. 6
21. Which Constitutional amendment incorporated the Fundamental Duties in the Constitution of India?
A. 40th
B. 44th
C. 42nd
D. 50th
Correct : C. 42nd
22. Right to property was deleted by which amendment
A. 71st
B. 44th
C. 42nd
D. 68th
Correct : A. 71st
23. Who said “the Preamble is the key to the Constitution”
A. Dr B.R. Ambedkar
B. Dr Rajendra Prasad
C. Jawaharlal Nehru
D. C. Rajagopalachari
Correct : A. Dr B.R. Ambedkar
24. Article 19 of the Constitution of India contains
A. 9 Fundamental Freedoms
B. 8 Fundamental Freedoms
C. 7 Fundamental Freedoms
D. 6 Fundamental Freedoms
Correct : D. 6 Fundamental Freedoms
25. The Chairman of the National Human Rights Commission is appointed by
A. Prime Minister
B. President
C. Vice President
D. Council of Ministers
Correct : B. President
26. Which among the following is not a Fundamental Right?
A. Right to Equality
B. Right to Property
C. Right to Freedom
D. Right against exploitation
Correct : B. Right to Property
27. Rights given in the Constitution are called Fundamental Right because
A. They are natural rights
B. They can’t be suspended
C. They are a part of the Constitution
D. They can be enforced and safeguarded by the courts
Correct : D. They can be enforced and safeguarded by the courts
28. Article 32 stands suspended during an emergency under Article
A. 352
B. 356
C. 360
D. 362
Correct : A. 352
29. Right to privacy is contained in
A. Article 22
B. Article 19
C. Article 21
D. Article 22
Correct : C. Article 21
30. Freedom of expression is included in the article
A. 15
B. 19
C. 21
D. 22
Correct : B. 19
31. The emergency provisions of the Constitution of India have been borrowed from
A. German Constitution
B. American Constitution
C. French Constitution
D. Irish Constitution
Correct : A. German Constitution
32. Concurrent list was adopted from
A. Russian Constitution
B. American Constitution
C. Swiss constitution
D. French Constitution
Correct : C. Swiss constitution
33. Equality before law and Equal protection of law have been modelled on the Constitution of
A. Britain
B. America
C. Russian
D. Switzerland
Correct : A. Britain
34. In India the power of ‘amnesty’ has been given to the
A. President
B. Prime Minister
C. Chief of the army
D. Parliament
Correct : A. President
35. The President’s rule in a state can be continued at a stretch for a maximum period of
A. 4years
B. 2years
C. 3 years
D. one year
Correct : D. one year
36. The Council of state in India has how many elected members
A. 250
B. 238
C. 245
D. 230
Correct : B. 238
37. The executive power in India is actually exercised by
A. Speaker
B. President
C. Council of Ministers
D. Parliament
Correct : C. Council of Ministers
38. 42nd amendment Act was adopted by the Parliament in
A. 1967
B. 1968
C. 1976
D. 1977
Correct : C. 1976
39. The supreme commander of the armed forces in India is
A. President
B. Prime Minister
C. Defence Minister
D. None of these
Correct : A. President
40. Public Undertaking Committee is a
A. Cabinet Committee
B. Parliamentary Committee
C. Committee of a political party
D. None of these
Correct : B. Parliamentary Committee
41. What is the maximum gap permissible between two sessions of the Parliament?
A. 3 months
B. 4 months
C. 6 months
D. 12 months
Correct : C. 6 months
42. The Governor of a state is a
A. Constitutional head
B. real head
C. Hereditary head
D. nominated head
Correct : A. Constitutional head
43. Who elects the Vice President of India
A. House of the People
B. Both Houses of Parliament
C. Council of States
D. Both Houses of Parliament and state legislatures
Correct : B. Both Houses of Parliament
44. In consequence of the death or incapacity of the President, vice President can become the President for
A. 6 months
B. 12months
C. 1 month
D. 5 months
Correct : D. 5 months
45. Grass root democracy is related to
A. Panchayath system
B. Interstate council
C. Lok Pal
D. Regionalism
Correct : A. Panchayath system
46. The Parliament of India consists of
A. President, House of the People and Council of state
B. House of the People and Council of states
C. Vice President, House of People and Council of states
D. President, Vice President, House of the People and Council of States
Correct : C. Vice President, House of People and Council of states
47. The President of India is elected by
A. Elected members of both Houses of Parliament
B. Members of both Houses of Parliament
C. Elected members of both Houses of Parliament and state legislative assemblies
D. Elected members of both Houses of Parliament and both Houses of the state legislatures
Correct : D. Elected members of both Houses of Parliament and both Houses of the state legislatures
48. A vote taken unexpectedly without voters having been briefed in advance
A. Snap poll
B. by-election
C. opinion poll
D. exit poll
Correct : A. Snap poll
49. The President of India can ---------------------- the House
A. Sine die
B. prorogue
C. adjourn
D. None of these
Correct : B. prorogue
50. Recess means
A. The interval between the prorogation of Parliament and its reassembly
B. The Parliament in session
C. Adjournment of the House
D. Dissolution of the House
Correct : A. The interval between the prorogation of Parliament and its reassembly
51. The Speaker use the ‘casting vote’
A. to maintain status quo
B. to challenge the opposition
C. to defeat the government
D. in the absence of the Prime Minister
Correct : A. to maintain status quo
52. Council of states in India can delay a money bill for
A. indefinite period
B. 6 months
C. 1 month
D. 14 days
Correct : D. 14 days
53. Starred questions requires
A. Oral answer
B. unwritten answer
C. supplementary question
D. None of these
Correct : A. Oral answer
54. Consolidated Fund is
A. votable
B. non votable
C. non plan
D. None of these
Correct : B. non votable
55. Council of States in India can create an All India Service by
A. Simple majority
B. ¾ majority
C. 2/3 majority
D. unanimously
Correct : C. 2/3 majority
56. Public Accounts Committee has members from
A. House of the People
B. Council of states only
C. state legislatures
D. Both Houses of Parliament
Correct : D. Both Houses of Parliament
57. Adjournment of the House is the power of the
A. President
B. Speaker
C. Prime Minister
D. Council of Ministers
Correct : B. Speaker
58. Committee in Public Undertakings has members from
A. Both Houses of Parliament
B. Lok Sabha only
C. Rajya Sabha only
D. State Legislative Council
Correct : A. Both Houses of Parliament
59. Unstarred questions requires
A. Oral answer
B. Zero Hour
C. supplementary question
D. written answer
Correct : D. written answer
60. Sine Die is associated with the power of the
A. President
B. Speaker
C. Chief Justice
D. Prime Minister
Correct : B. Speaker
61. ‘Who holds the purse holds the power’ who said this
A. Jawahar Lal Nehru
B. Harold Laski
C. Clement Attle
D. James Madison
Correct : D. James Madison
62. The President of the Indian Republic has
A. Only suspensive veto
B. Absolute veto
C. Pocket veto
D. None of these
Correct : A. Only suspensive veto
63. The members of the Council of Ministers are collectively responsible to
A. Judiciary
B. House of the People
C. Council of States
D. The President
Correct : B. House of the People
64. The term federal is derived from the Latin word ‘foedus’ which means
A. Separation
B. Distribution
C. Covenant
D. None of these
Correct : C. Covenant
65. Which commission has examined the centre- state relations
A. Sarkaria Commission
B. Sri Krishna Commission
C. Rajamannar Commission
D. Kher Commission
Correct : A. Sarkaria Commission
66. Unequal representation of states in the Council of States in India indicates
A. The Federal nature
B. the unitary features
C. The Bicameral features
D. Non of these
Correct : B. the unitary features
67. The chairman of the National Development Council is
A. Finance Minister
B. Defence Minister
C. Prime Minister
D. Home Minister
Correct : C. Prime Minister
68. The Indian federal system is largely based on the pattern of
A. US Federal system
B. Australian Federal system
C. Swiss Federal system
D. Canadian Federal system
Correct : D. Canadian Federal system
69. The Constitution of India adopted the federal system from the Act of
A. 1919
B. 1935
C. 1947
D. 1909
Correct : B. 1935
70. National Integration Council reflects the ----------------- nature of the Indian Federal system
A. Federal nature
B. Unitary nature
C. competitive nature
D. con-federal nature
Correct : B. Unitary nature
71. Madan Mohan Punchi commission was appointed to study
A. Centre-state relations
B. State reorganization
C. Panchayat Raj
D. delimitation of constituencies
Correct : A. Centre-state relations
72. The members of the Planning Commission have the status equal to that of
A. Central cabinet ministers
B. state ministers
C. Deputy Ministers
D. Members of Parliament
Correct : A. Central cabinet ministers
73. which among the following is not created by the Constitution
A. Planning Commission
B. Finance Commission
C. Election Commission
D. UPSC
Correct : A. Planning Commission
74. Chairman of the Planning Commission is the
A. President
B. Vice President
C. Prime Minister
D. Speaker
Correct : C. Prime Minister
75. The Constitution of India is parliamentary because
A. There is an elected President
B. there is a bicameral legislature
C. There is a Supreme Court
D. the executive is responsible to the Legislature
Correct : D. the executive is responsible to the Legislature
76. India is a Republic in the sense that
A. it has an elected Head of the state
B. it has an elected Head of the Government
C. it has a bi-cameral legislature
D. it has sovereign power
Correct : A. it has an elected Head of the state
77. Chairman of the Finance Commission is appointed by the
A. Prime Minister
B. Council of Ministers
C. President
D. Vice President
Correct : C. President
78. Planning Commission was formed by Government of India by a resolution in
A. 1950
B. 1947
C. 1944
D. 1946
Correct : A. 1950
79. Which of the following is not a feature of the Constitution of India?
A. It is democratic
B. it is republic
C. it is federal
D. it is Presidential
Correct : D. it is Presidential
80. The word “procedure established by law” in the constitution of India have been borrowed from
A. UK
B. USA
C. French
D. Germany
Correct : B. USA
81. The President of the Constituent Assembly was
A. Maulana Abdul Kalam Azad
B. Dr Rajendra Prasad
C. Sardar Vallabhai Patel
D. Dr BR Ambedkar
Correct : B. Dr Rajendra Prasad
82. The list dividing powers between union and states are given in the ------------- schedule
A. IV
B. V
C. VI
D. VII
Correct : D. VII
83. The Indian Constitution is an
A. Enacted one
B. evolved one
C. unwritten one
D. None of these
Correct : A. Enacted one
84. Dyarchy was introduced at the Provincial level by the Act of
A. 1892
B. 1919
C. 1935
D. 1909
Correct : B. 1919
85. Dyarchy was introduced at the Centre by the Act of
A. 1909
B. 1919
C. 1935
D. 1947
Correct : C. 1935
86. The Objective Resolution in the Constituent Assembly was moved by
A. Dr Rajendra Prasad
B. B.R.Ambedkar
C. Jawaharalal Nehru
D. Alladi Krishna swamy Iyer
Correct : C. Jawaharalal Nehru
87. The election to the Constituent Assembly was held in
A. June 1946
B. July 1946
C. August 1946
D. September 1946
Correct : B. July 1946
88. Government of India Act 1909 is known as
A. Montague Chelmsford Reforms
B. Minto Morley Reforms
C. Cabinet Mission Plan
D. Cripps Mission Plan
Correct : B. Minto Morley Reforms
89. The Objective Resolution was adopted by the Constituent Assembly in
A. January 1947
B. July 1947
C. August 1947
D. May 1947
Correct : A. January 1947
90. The Constitution Drafting Committee constituted by the Constituent Assembly consisted of
A. 5 member
B. 6members
C. 7 members
D. 8 members
Correct : C. 7 members
91. The Constitution of
A. 390 articles
B. 396 articles
C. 395 articles
D. 394 articles
Correct : C. 395 articles
92. The Constitution of India was adopted on
A. 26th January 1950
B. 26th January1947
C. 26th November 1949
D. 26th June 1948
Correct : A. 26th January 1950
93. Directive Principles of state Policy are included in the Articles
A. 15-24
B. 25-32
C. 36-51
D. 52-60
Correct : C. 36-51
94. The Concurrent list in the Constitution of India was adopted from
A. Switzerland
B. Australia
C. Canada
D. Irish
Correct : B. Australia
95. The Directive Principles of State Policy in the Constitution of India was adopted from
A. Irish
B. Canada
C. Germany
D. Australia
Correct : A. Irish
96. The makers of the Constitution of India adopted the concept of Judicial Review from
A. Russia
B. Germany
C. US
D. Australia
Correct : C. US
97. The Indian federal system can be transformed into a unitary system under
A. Article 368
B. Article 356
C. Article 360
D. Article 352
Correct : D. Article 352
98. Fundamental Rights are included in articles
A. 15-24
B. 12-36
C. 36-51
D. 52-62 (133)
Correct : B. 12-36
99. Right to Property was omitted from Part III of the Constitution by the
A. 42nd amendment
B. 44th amendment
C. 86th amendment
D. 62nd amendment
Correct : B. 44th amendment
100. The watchword of a Parliamentary government is
A. Stability
B. checks and balances
C. Political homogeneity
D. responsibility
Correct : D. responsibility