Quiznetik
Microbiology | Set 9
1. Dose of BCG vaccine is
A. 0.2–0.5 ml
B. 0.1 ml
C. 0.05 ml
D. 0.2 to 0.3 ml
Correct : B. 0.1 ml
2. Negative Mantoux test is important in
A. Pulmonary Koch’s syndrome
B. Sarcoidosis
C. Carcinoma bronchus
D. Lymphoma
Correct : A. Pulmonary Koch’s syndrome
3. Bacilli Calmette Guerin (BCG) contains the avirulent strains of
A. Human tubercle bacilli
B. Avian tubercle bacilli
C. Bovine tubercle bacilli
D. A typical mycobacteria
Correct : C. Bovine tubercle bacilli
4. Drugs used against tuberculosis (TB) are
A. Refampicin, Isoniazid
B. Pyrazinamide, Streptomycin
C. Both a and b
D. None of these
Correct : C. Both a and b
5. The greatest number of tubercle bacilli is present in
A. Large sized tuberculomas
B. Miliary tuberculosis
C. Tuberculous lymphadinitis
D. Tuberculous cavity of the lung
Correct : D. Tuberculous cavity of the lung
6. Histoid Hansen is a veriety of
A. Tuberculoid Leprosy
B. Borderline tuberculoid
C. Borderline lepramatous
D. Lepronmetous leprosy
Correct : D. Lepronmetous leprosy
7. Streptococcus pyogens produces all of the following lesions, except
A. Impetigo contagiosa
B. Erysipeals
C. Boil
D. Paronchia
Correct : D. Paronchia
8. Causative agent of Scarlet fever:
A. Staphylococcus aureus
B. Streptococcus viridans
C. Stre. pyogens
D. None of these
Correct : C. Stre. pyogens
9. Rheumatic fever is most commonly caused by
A. Str. viridan
B. Str. pyogenes
C. Stph. aures
D. None of these
Correct : B. Str. pyogenes
10. Penicillin is the drug of choice for
A. Scarlet fever
B. Whooping cough
C. Brucellosis
D. Cholera
Correct : A. Scarlet fever
11. In human being str. pneumoniae causes
A. Septicaemia
B. Paronychia
C. Pneumomnia
D. None of these
Correct : C. Pneumomnia
12. Virulence factor for Stre. pneumoniae:
A. Capsular polysaccharide
B. Specific soluble substance
C. Vi-antigen
D. Forsmann antigen
Correct : A. Capsular polysaccharide
13. Conjunctivitis in a new born is caused by
A. Streptococcu
B. Pneumococcus
C. Meningococci
D. None of these
Correct : A. Streptococcu
14. Influenza is belonging to
A. Orthomyxoviridae
B. Retroviridae
C. Both a and b
D. None of these
Correct : A. Orthomyxoviridae
15. Influenza virus contains
A. Eight segments of RNA
B. Two strands of RNA
C. Single RNA
D. None of these
Correct : B. Two strands of RNA
16. ‘Reye’s syndrome’ is caused by
A. St.pneumoniae
B. St.pyogenes
C. Influenza
D. None of these
Correct : C. Influenza
17. Geraman measles is also known as
A. Rubella / 2-day measles
B. Rubella / 3day measles
C. Rubella / 4-day measles
D. Rubella / 1-day measles
Correct : B. Rubella / 3day measles
18. The commonest cause of rubella in new bornes
A. Congential rubella
B. Post natal rubella
C. Expanded rubella syndrome (ERS)
D. Both a and c
Correct : D. Both a and c
19. Mumps virus is belonging go
A. Retroviriae
B. Paramyxoviriae
C. Orthomyxo viridae
D. None of these
Correct : B. Paramyxoviriae
20. Measles is characterized by
A. Negribodies
B. Babes-Ernest granules
C. Koplik’s spots
D. Fever
Correct : B. Babes-Ernest granules
21. Brucella causes
A. Pertusi
B. Plague
C. Brucellosis
D. None of these
Correct : C. Brucellosis
22. Mediterranian fever is caused by
A. M. tuberculosi
B. S. typhi
C. C.neoformans
D. Brucella
Correct : D. Brucella
23. Which of the following test is specific for Brucellosis?
A. Frei
B. Weil
C. Castaneda strip
D. Rose water
Correct : C. Castaneda strip
24. Malignant pustule is caused by
A. Anthrax
B. Tetanus
C. Diphtheria
D. None of these
Correct : A. Anthrax
25. The commonest form of anthrax in man is
A. Alimentary
B. Cutaneous
C. Pulmonary
D. Hepatic
Correct : B. Cutaneous
26. The animals most frequently infected with anthrax are
A. Sheep
B. Cattle
C. Goats
D. All of these
Correct : D. All of these
27. Virus causing Rabies is
A. Orthromyxo viru
B. Paramyxo virus
C. Rhbdo virus
D. Toga viruses
Correct : C. Rhbdo virus
28. Rhabdo viruses are belonging to the family:
A. Rhabdo viridae
B. Toga viridae
C. Paramyxo viridae
D. None of these
Correct : A. Rhabdo viridae
29. Rabies Virus isolated from natural human or animal infection is termed as
A. Street viru
B. Fixed virus
C. Both a and b
D. None of these
Correct : A. Street viru
30. Rabies virus can multiply in
A. The central nervous system only
B. The peripheral nerves
C. Muscle tissues
D. All the above
Correct : D. All the above
31. Neurological complications following rabies vaccines is common with
A. Chick embryo vaccine
B. HDCS vaccine
C. Semple vaccine
D. BPL vaccine
Correct : C. Semple vaccine
32. Which anti rabic vaccine has been recommended by WHO as the most effective?
A. Duck embryo vaccine
B. HDCS vaccine
C. Sheep brain vaccine
D. BPL vaccine
Correct : B. HDCS vaccine
33. The causative agent of tetanus is
A. Clostridium botulinum
B. Cl. tetani
C. Cl. welchii
D. Cl. perfringens
Correct : B. Cl. tetani
34. The mode of spread of tetanus neurotoxin from blood to brain is
A. Via lymphaties
B. Arterial blood
C. Cranial nerves
D. None of these
Correct : C. Cranial nerves
35. Tetanus is caused by spread of
A. Exotoxin in sympathetic system
B. Exotoxin in para sympathetic system
C. Endotoxin in sympathetic system
D. Endotoxin in parasympathetic system
Correct : A. Exotoxin in sympathetic system
36. The first symptom of tetanus is
A. Lock jaw
B. Trismus
C. Anorexia
D. Dyspagia
Correct : B. Trismus
37. Of which clostridia, the neurotoxin is most powerful?
A. Cl. tetani
B. Cl. welchii
C. Cl. botulism
D. Cl. septicum
Correct : C. Cl. botulism
38. Toxin produced by C. botulism is
A. Botulin
B. Tetanospasmin
C. Tetanolysin
D. Cholaragen
Correct : A. Botulin
39. “Toxic shock syndrome” is caused by the toxin of
A. Staphylococcus aureus
B. Streptococcus pyoge
C. Vibrio cholerae
D. Candida
Correct : A. Staphylococcus aureus
40. Causative agent of syphilis
A. T. pallidum
B. T. pertenue
C. T. carateum
D. T. endemicum
Correct : A. T. pallidum
41. Spirochaelis are sensitive to
A. Penicillin
B. Chloramphenicols
C. Erythromycin
D. Tetracyclins
Correct : B. Chloramphenicols
42. Specific test for syphilis is
A. VDRL test
B. ELISA
C. FTA
D. None of these
Correct : A. VDRL test
43. VDRL test is a
A. Agglutination test
B. Slide flocculation test
C. Precipitation test
D. None of these
Correct : B. Slide flocculation test
44. The following characters are true about Neisseria gonorrhoeae except
A. Gram-negative, aerobic bacteria
B. Non-motile diplococci
C. Oxidase positive organisms
D. Air borne infection
Correct : D. Air borne infection
45. Gonorrhoea is
A. Air borne disease
B. Water borne disease
C. Sexually transmitted venereal disease
D. Both a and c
Correct : C. Sexually transmitted venereal disease
46. Bartholin cyst is caused by
A. Candida
B. Streptococcus
C. Staphylococcus
D. Gonococcus
Correct : D. Gonococcus
47. Neisseria gonorrhoeae causes
A. Urethriti
B. Conjuctivitis
C. Arthritis
D. All of the above
Correct : D. All of the above
48. Virulence in gonococcus is due to
A. Pili
B. Cell membrane
C. Its cellular location
D. Cyclic enzymes
Correct : A. Pili
49. Japanese encephalitis is caused by
A. Toga Viruse
B. Arbo Viruses
C. Para myxo Viruses
D. Ortho myxo Viruses
Correct : B. Arbo Viruses
50. In India, Japanese b encephalitis was first isolated from the mosquitoes of the
A. Culex tritaeriorhynchus
B. Culex annulirostris
C. Culex vishnui
D. None of these
Correct : C. Culex vishnui
51. Dengue virus is transmitted from man to man by the
A. Sand fly
B. Ticks
C. Aedes aegypti
D. Culex
Correct : C. Aedes aegypti
52. Yellow fever is caused by
A. Bunya viru
B. Calci virus
C. Arbo virus
D. None of these
Correct : C. Arbo virus
53. Vector for leishmaniasis is
A. Tick
B. Mite
C. Sand fly
D. Tsetse fly
Correct : C. Sand fly
54. Splenomegaly is an important manifestation of
A. Kala-agar
B. Typhoid
C. Malaria
D. All of these
Correct : D. All of these
55. Which of the following is most severly affected in Kala-azar?
A. Liver
B. Spleen
C. Adrenal gland
D. Bone marrow
Correct : B. Spleen
56. In India, malaria most often spreads by
A. Anophels cucifacies
B. Anopheles fluvatis
C. Anopheles stephensi
D. Anopheles minimus
Correct : A. Anophels cucifacies
57. Man is intermediate host for
A. Guinea Worm
B. Filaria
C. Malaria
D. Kala-azar
Correct : C. Malaria
58. Which of the following preferably infects reticulocytes?
A. P. ovale
B. P.vivax
C. P.falciparum
D. P.malaria
Correct : B. P.vivax
59. In which type of material parasite in the exoerythrocytic stage absent?
A. P.ovale
B. P.vivax
C. P.falciparum
D. P. malariae
Correct : C. P.falciparum
60. In falciparum malaria, all of the following stages are seen except
A. Ring stage
B. Schizont
C. Gametocyte
D. None of these
Correct : B. Schizont
61. Sporozite vaccine in malaria has
A. Induces antibodies
B. Prevents only asexual forms with reproduction
C. No effects on clinical illness
D. None of the above
Correct : A. Induces antibodies
62. Growing trophozoites and schizonts are not seen in the peripheral blood in malaria due to
A. P. falciparum
B. P.vivax
C. P.ovale
D. P. malaria
Correct : A. P. falciparum
63. Thin blood smear for malaria is used to identify
A. Plasmodium
B. Gametocytes
C. Type of parasite
D. Schizont
Correct : C. Type of parasite
64. The radical teatment of malaria is to half
A. Gametocyte
B. Exo-erythrocytic phase
C. Erythrocytic phase
D. All of these
Correct : C. Erythrocytic phase
65. Symptoms of acute aflatoxicosis
A. Osteogenic sarcoma
B. Lymphatic leukemia
C. Malaise & Anorexia
D. Both a and b
Correct : D. Both a and b
66. Most important Penicillium toxins are
A. Citrinin
B. Patulin
C. Penicillic acid
D. All of the above
Correct : D. All of the above
67. Penicillic acid is produced by
A. A. ochraceu
B. P. puberulum
C. Both a and b
D. None of the above
Correct : C. Both a and b
68. Fungi producting mycelium are called
A. Mould
B. Filamentous fungi
C. Both a and b
D. Yeasts
Correct : A. Mould
69. Candidiasis is caused by
A. Candida albican
B. Aspergillus spp.
C. E. floccosum
D. M. audouinii
Correct : A. Candida albican
70. Candida albicans is capable to form
A. Single cell
B. Pseudomonas
C. Multicellular forms
D. None of these
Correct : B. Pseudomonas
71. Aspergillus fumigatus can infect
A. A. niger
B. A. fumigatus
C. A. flavus
D. A. oryzae
Correct : D. A. oryzae
72. A.fumigates can produce
A. Endotoxin
B. Exotoxins
C. Enterotoxins
D. None of these
Correct : A. Endotoxin
73. The drug of choice for dermal, oral and vaginal candidiasis is
A. Griseofulvin
B. Amphotericin B
C. Gentian violet
D. Nystatin
Correct : C. Gentian violet
74. The following Penicillium species are pathogenic except
A. P. commune
B. P. bicolor
C. P. glaucum
D. P.notatum
Correct : D. P.notatum
75. Tinea versicolor is caused by
A. Candida albican
B. Malassezia furfur
C. Aspergillus niger
D. None of these
Correct : B. Malassezia furfur
76. Causative agent of Tinea nigra
A. Malassezia furfur
B. Exophiala werenekii
C. Candida albicans
D. Aspergillus flavus
Correct : B. Exophiala werenekii
77. Causative agent of African histoplasmosis
A. Histoplasma capsulatum
B. Histoplasma duboissi
C. Aspergillus niger
D. Aspergillus flavus
Correct : B. Histoplasma duboissi
78. Sun ray fungus is
A. Actinomyces irraeli
B. Chromoblastomycosis
C. Streptomyces griseus
D. Cryptococcosis
Correct : A. Actinomyces irraeli
79. Which agent on addition to a colony inhibits its growth and on removal the colony regrows is?
A. Bacteriostatic
B. Bactericidal
C. Antibiotic
D. Antiseptic
Correct : A. Bacteriostatic
80. Griseofluvin is obtained from
A. Penicillium notatum
B. Streptomyces griseus
C. Penicillium griseofluvin
D. None of these
Correct : C. Penicillium griseofluvin
81. β-lactum ring is present in
A. Erythromycin
B. Penicillin
C. Tetracyclins
D. Chloramphenicol
Correct : B. Penicillin
82. All of the following drugs act on cell membrane, except
A. Novobiocin
B. Nystatin
C. Chloromycetin
D. Colicins
Correct : D. Colicins
83. Cycloserine related to the amino acid in structure
A. Serine
B. Aspergine
C. Alanine
D. None of these
Correct : C. Alanine
84. In Tuberculosis therapy mainly used antibiotic is
A. Penicillin
B. Streptomycin
C. Chloramphenol
D. Cycloserine
Correct : D. Cycloserine
85. The antibacterial action of penicillin is due to its effect on
A. Cell membrane permeability
B. Cell wall synthesis
C. DNA synthesis
D. Protein synthesis
Correct : B. Cell wall synthesis
86. The antibiotic produced from Bacillus subtilis is
A. Vancomycin
B. Bactiracin
C. Both a and b
D. None of these
Correct : B. Bactiracin
87. bacitracin sensitivity test is done for
A. Pneunocci
B. Group ‘A’ Streptococci
C. Gonococci
D. Staphylococci
Correct : B. Group ‘A’ Streptococci
88. The effect of antibiotics on micro organisms is mainly due to
A. Inhibition of cell-wall synthesis
B. Damage to the cytoplasmic membrane
C. Inhibition of nucleic acid and protein synthesis
D. All of the above
Correct : D. All of the above
89. The antibiotic acting on cell wall is
A. Penicillin
B. Bacitracin
C. Cyclosporin
D. All of the above
Correct : D. All of the above
90. Erythromycin belongs to chemical class of antibiotics
A. â-lactose
B. Tetracyclines
C. Macrolides
D. Aminoglycosides
Correct : C. Macrolides
91. Bacterial resistance to antibiotics is transmitted by
A. Transduction
B. Transformation
C. Mutation
D. Plasmids
Correct : D. Plasmids
92. Erythromycin inhibits protein synthesis by
A. Attaching to 30 S ribosome unit
B. Attaching to 50 S unit or ribosome
C. By the attachment to t-RNA
D. By the attachment to m-RNA
Correct : B. Attaching to 50 S unit or ribosome
93. The function of (THFA) Tetrahydrofolic acid coenzyme include
A. Amino acid synthesis
B. Thymidine synthesis
C. Protein synthesis
D. Both a and b
Correct : D. Both a and b
94. Resistant to drugs in tuberculosis develops by
A. Transduction
B. Transformation
C. Conjugation
D. Mutation
Correct : D. Mutation
95. Which of the following is penicillinase resistang acid labile penicillin?
A. Amoxycillin
B. Cloxacillin
C. Carbenicillin
D. Methicillin
Correct : D. Methicillin
96. Which of the following does not inhibit cell wall synthesis?
A. Penicillin
B. Carbenicillin
C. Amikacin
D. Vancomycin
Correct : C. Amikacin
97. The anti tumor antibiotics act by inhibiting
A. Cell wall synthesis
B. RNA synthesis
C. Cell membrane synthesis
D. The DNA structure & function
Correct : D. The DNA structure & function
98. Drug resistance to sulphonamides is due to
A. Production of PABA
B. Folic acid synthetase
C. Drug alteration
D. Low affinity for drug synthesis by bacteria
Correct : B. Folic acid synthetase
99. Amoxycillin is combined with clavulanic acid to inhibit
A. DNA gyrace
B. Cell synthesis
C. Protein synthesis
D. β-lactamase enzymes
Correct : D. β-lactamase enzymes
100. Drug of choice for methicillin resistant staph. Aureus is
A. Ampicillin
B. Erythromycin
C. Neomycin
D. Vancomycin
Correct : D. Vancomycin