Quiznetik
Microbiology | Set 8
1. Vaccines prepared from toxins and chemicals are
A. Cellular vaccines
B. Sub-cellular vaccines
C. Attenuated vaccines
D. Heterologous vaccines
Correct : B. Sub-cellular vaccines
2. Example for live vaccine is
A. Rubella & BCG
B. Polio & TAB
C. Diphtheria & Tetanus
D. Hepatitis A & Rabies
Correct : A. Rubella & BCG
3. DPT is given for the prevention of
A. Diphtheria, Tetanus
B. Diphtheria, Pertusis
C. Diphtheria, Tetanus & pertusis
D. None of these
Correct : C. Diphtheria, Tetanus & pertusis
4. The live vaccines are available against the following viruses, except:
A. Influenza
B. Measles
C. Rabies
D. Polio
Correct : C. Rabies
5. HIV can be transmitted through
A. Blood
B. s*men
C. Vaginal fluid
D. All of these
Correct : D. All of these
6. Animals are naturally immune to infection caused by
A. V. Cholera
B. S.typhosa
C. Both a and b
D. None of these
Correct : C. Both a and b
7. The immunity acquired by inoculation of living organism of attenuated virulence is
A. Artificial active immunity
B. Passive immunity
C. Natural active immunity
D. Local immunity
Correct : A. Artificial active immunity
8. Organ isms can be attenuated for inoculation by
A. Growing it at a temperature higher than optimum
B. By passage through animals of different species which are less susceptible to it
C. By continous cultivation in presence of antagonistic substance
D. Any one of the above
Correct : D. Any one of the above
9. Passive immunity lasts for the period of about
A. 10 days
B. 2 – 3 months
C. 10 years
D. None of the above
Correct : A. 10 days
10. Following substance may act as an antigen
A. Egg albumin
B. RBC and serum
C. Vegetable protein
D. Snake venom
Correct : C. Vegetable protein
11. H antigen are present in
A. Motile organ
B. Non-motile organ
C. Both a & b
D. None of these
Correct : A. Motile organ
12. Antitoxin is used for _____ immunization.
A. Active
B. Passive
C. Both a and b
D. None of these
Correct : B. Passive
13. The agglutinin test is used for _______
A. Identification of isolated bacteria
B. Typing of bacterial species
C. Study of antigenic structure of bacteria
D. All of these
Correct : D. All of these
14. In blood transfusion it is essential that
A. Blood of hologous group should always be same
B. Direct matching between patient’s serum and donor’s corpuscles be performed
C. Both a & b
D. None of these
Correct : C. Both a & b
15. To be anaphylactic, the sensitizing substance should be
A. Protein in nature
B. Should have a large molecular weight
C. Soluble in tissue fluids
D. All of the above
Correct : B. Should have a large molecular weight
16. Which test is used for detecting susceptibility of an individual to diphtheria toxin?
A. Schick test
B. Dick test
C. V-P test
D. Precipitin test
Correct : A. Schick test
17. Syndromes associated with Human T lymphotropic virus type I(HTLV-I) are
A. Adult T-cell lymphoma
B. Hairy cell leukemia
C. Adult T cell leukemia
D. All of these
Correct : B. Hairy cell leukemia
18. AIDS patients suffer from pneumoniae due to
A. Pneumocystisis carinii
B. Cryptospodidium
C. S.pneumoniae
D. Toxoplasma
Correct : D. Toxoplasma
19. Natural killer cells
A. Belongs to B-cell lineage
B. Belongs to T-cell lineage
C. Display cytotoxic effect on tumour cell
D. Require previous antigen exposure for activation
Correct : C. Display cytotoxic effect on tumour cell
20. Immunoglobulin is associated with anaphylactic delayed hypersensitivity reaction
A. IgE
B. IgA
C. IgD
D. IgM
Correct : A. IgE
21. The most abundant antibody found in serum is
A. IgA – 1
B. IgG – 1
C. IgG – 2
D. IgG – 3
Correct : A. IgA – 1
22. Immunoglobulin which cannot activate complement
A. IgM
B. IgE
C. IgA
D. IgG
Correct : B. IgE
23. Hydatid disease is identified by
A. Schick test
B. Dick test
C. Casoni test
D. Freis test
Correct : C. Casoni test
24. Prausnitz kustner reaction is generated by
A. IgA
B. IgE
C. IgG
D. IgD
Correct : B. IgE
25. Immunoglobin which are found in asthma at elevated level:
A. IgA
B. IgE
C. IgM
D. IgD
Correct : B. IgE
26. What is the similarity between IgM & IgG?
A. A compliment fixation
B. Placental transport
C. Heat stability at 56oC
D. Sedimentation coefficient
Correct : A. A compliment fixation
27. What is the technique for quantitative estimation of immunoglobulin?
A. Single diffusion in one dimension
B. Single diffusion in two dimension
C. Double diffusion in one dimension
D. Double diffusion in two dimension
Correct : B. Single diffusion in two dimension
28. Cell mediated immunity can be identified by
A. Sheep bred blood corpuscles roasette formation
B. Microphase inhibiting factor
C. Skin test for delayed hyper sensitivity
D. All of these
Correct : D. All of these
29. Out of the following which are the examples of autoimmune disease?
A. Acquired Haemolytic anaemia
B. Rheumatoid arthritis
C. Hashiomoto disease
D. All of these
Correct : D. All of these
30. Which of the following is a true statement regarding Purified Protine Derivative (PPD) used in tuberculin test?
A. Prepared from tubercle bacilli
B. It is inferior to old tuberculin
C. Consists of filtrate of glycerol broth
D. None of these
Correct : A. Prepared from tubercle bacilli
31. Which of the following are inactive viral vaccines?
A. Influenzae
B. Rabies
C. Russian spring summer encephalitis
D. All of these
Correct : D. All of these
32. Antigenic variation is most extensive in
A. Influenza viru
B. Small pox virus
C. Measles virus
D. Herpes virus
Correct : A. Influenza viru
33. Which is the correct statement related to hepatitis B virus?
A. Paramyxo viru
B. Orthomyxo virus
C. Reo viruses
D. Retro viruses
Correct : C. Reo viruses
34. Food poisoning is caused by
A. Clostridum tetani
B. Clostridum Welchi
C. Diptheria
D. Clostridium botulinum
Correct : D. Clostridium botulinum
35. Koplic’s spots will develop in
A. HIV
B. Measles
C. Mumps
D. Rubella
Correct : B. Measles
36. Viral DNA is resistant to DNA of the host cell because it contains
A. 5’-HMC
B. 5’-HMA
C. 5’-CHM
D. 5’MHC
Correct : A. 5’-HMC
37. Which of the following is an example of live vaccine?
A. pertusi
B. mumps
C. cholera
D. rabies
Correct : C. cholera
38. Triple toxoid vaccine gives protection against
A. Diphtheria, tetanus and rabies
B. Tetanus, whooping cough, Tuberculosis
C. Whooping cough, tetanus and Diphtheria
D. Whooping cough, cancer and T.B.
Correct : C. Whooping cough, tetanus and Diphtheria
39. Higher does of chloramphenicol affects the eukaryotic cells because
A. They have 30 S ribosomes
B. They have mitochondria
C. They have 70 S ribosomes
D. None of the above
Correct : B. They have mitochondria
40. AIDS is caused by
A. Retroviru
B. Prion
C. Rhabdovirus
D. Retroprison
Correct : A. Retroviru
41. Penicillin is a
A. Primary metabolite
B. Secondary metabolite
C. Tertiary metabolite
D. None of the above
Correct : B. Secondary metabolite
42. The rejection of an organ transplant such as a kidney transplant, is an example of _____ Hypersensitivity.
A. Immediate
B. Delayed
C. Allergy
D. None of these
Correct : A. Immediate
43. Listeriosis was ______ disease.
A. Food borne
B. Water borne
C. Milk borne
D. Air borne
Correct : A. Food borne
44. Pus-forming forms are called as
A. Pyoderm
B. Pyogenic
C. Pyrogen
D. None of the above
Correct : B. Pyogenic
45. In Elisa technique, the antibodies are labeled by
A. Acridine orange
B. Alkaline phosphate
C. Neutral red
D. Bromothymol blue
Correct : B. Alkaline phosphate
46. _____ is a genetic disease charachterized by a total or partial inability to synthesize globulins.
A. Apitososis
B. Agamma globulinemia
C. Gammaglobulinemma
D. Sickle-cell anemia.
Correct : B. Agamma globulinemia
47. A study involving analysis of risk for genetic defects in a family is
A. Genetic Engineering
B. Genetic counseling
C. Genetic drift
D. Genetic equilibrium
Correct : D. Genetic equilibrium
48. Viral antigens are likely
A. Protein
B. Glyco proteins
C. Lipo proteins
D. Both a and b
Correct : D. Both a and b
49. The suitable assay method for antibiotics is
A. Enzymatic assay
B. Turbidometric assay
C. End point determination assay
D. Metabolic assay
Correct : C. End point determination assay
50. ELISA test is used for the identification of
A. Janudice
B. AIDS
C. Cancer
D. Diabetis
Correct : B. AIDS
51. Incubation period for infective Hepatitis disease
A. 45 – 80 day
B. 15 – 35 days
C. 35 – 50 days
D. 5 – 15 days
Correct : D. 5 – 15 days
52. All of the following are bacteriostatic chemotherapeutic agents except
A. Bacitracin
B. Chloramphenicol
C. Novobiocin
D. Tetracycline
Correct : A. Bacitracin
53. Kinetosomes are observed in
A. Algae
B. Fungi
C. Protozoa
D. Viruses
Correct : C. Protozoa
54. β-lactum ring is present in
A. Erythromycin
B. Penicillin
C. Tetracyclins
D. Chromphenical
Correct : B. Penicillin
55. Antibiotic produced from streptomyces orientalis is
A. Streptomycin
B. Penicillin
C. Vancomycin
D. Both a and b
Correct : C. Vancomycin
56. The drug of choice for dermal, oral and vaginal candidiasis is
A. Griseofulvin
B. Amphoterein B
C. Gentian violet
D. Nystatin
Correct : D. Nystatin
57. Botulism means
A. Food adultration
B. Food poisioning by streptococcus bacteria
C. Chemical contamination of food
D. Food processing
Correct : C. Chemical contamination of food
58. Chloramphenicol is obtained from
A. Streptomyces griseus
B. Streptomyces venezuelae
C. Streptomyces pyrogenes
D. None of these
Correct : B. Streptomyces venezuelae
59. Streptomycin is obtained from
A. Streptococcus species
B. Streptomyces griseus
C. Straphylococcus aureus
D. None of these
Correct : A. Streptococcus species
60. The treatment required for small bodies of water is
A. Disinfection
B. Filtration
C. Purification
D. All of these
Correct : D. All of these
61. Surface ropiness is caused by
A. Alkaligenes viscolactis
B. Streptococcus
C. both a and b
D. None of these
Correct : D. None of these
62. Septicaemia is
A. Bacteria in blood
B. Toxin in blood
C. Pus in blood
D. Multiplication of bacteria and toxins in blood
Correct : D. Multiplication of bacteria and toxins in blood
63. In AIDS, Kaposis sarcoma may respond to
A. Interleukin – 2 infusion
B. Azathioprine
C. Alpha interferon
D. None of these
Correct : C. Alpha interferon
64. Ciprofloxacin acts by inhibiting
A. Cellwall synthesis
B. RNA synthesis
C. Folate synthesis
D. DNA gyrase
Correct : D. DNA gyrase
65. Lyme disease is caused by
A. Bacteria
B. Fungi
C. Spirochaete
D. Virus
Correct : C. Spirochaete
66. Toxic shock syndrome is caused by
A. Staph. albu
B. Staph. aureus
C. Strep. viridana
D. None of these
Correct : B. Staph. aureus
67. Black water fever is caused by
A. P. vivax
B. P. falciparum
C. P. ovale
D. None of these
Correct : B. P. falciparum
68. Mantoux test detects
A. M. tuberculosi
B. Cynaobacteria
C. Clostridia
D. Both a and b
Correct : A. M. tuberculosi
69. The antibiotic acting on cell wall is
A. Bactracin
B. Penicillin
C. Cyclosporine
D. All of these
Correct : D. All of these
70. Aflatoxin is produced by
A. Aspergillus sp
B. Penicillium sps
C. Alternaria sps
D. None of these
Correct : A. Aspergillus sp
71. Penicillin is discovered by
A. Fleming
B. Pasteur
C. Koch
D. None of these
Correct : A. Fleming
72. Antibiotics used in combination may demonstrate
A. Synergism
B. Antaginism
C. both
D. None of these
Correct : C. both
73. The drug of choice in anaphylactic shock is
A. Histamine
B. Corticosteroid
C. Epinephrine
D. None of these
Correct : C. Epinephrine
74. Drugs of choice for treatment of Mycoplasma infections:
A. Tetracycline
B. Erythromycin
C. a and b
D. Penicillins
Correct : C. a and b
75. A number of viruses are known to infect mycoplasmas, called
A. Bacteriophages
B. Mycoplasma phages
C. Virions
D. Tiny strains
Correct : B. Mycoplasma phages
76. The following are true about Rickettsiae.
A. Unicellular organisms
B. Prokaryotic intracellular parasites
C. Presence of 70 S ribosomes
D. It causes hemolysis in human beings
Correct : D. It causes hemolysis in human beings
77. The causative agent of scrub typhus:
A. R.Quintana
B. R.rickettsii
C. R.orinetalis
D. R.prowazekii
Correct : C. R.orinetalis
78. Lymphogranuloma venerum (LGV) is a sexually transmitted disease is caused by
A. Copthalmia
B. C.trachomatis
C. C.pneumonias
D. C.psittasi
Correct : B. C.trachomatis
79. Intradermal test employed for diagnosis of LGV is
A. Frei test
B. Mantoux test
C. Schick test
D. Dick test
Correct : A. Frei test
80. Which algae is pathogenic to human?
A. Cephaloeuro
B. Ulothrix
C. Macrocystis
D. Prototheca
Correct : D. Prototheca
81. Erythromycin is obtained from
A. S.griseu
B. S.rimosus
C. S.scabies
D. S.erythraeus
Correct : D. S.erythraeus
82. Common cold is caused by
A. Adeno viru
B. Corono virus
C. Hepatitis virus
D. Pox virus
Correct : B. Corono virus
83. The causative agent of conjunctivitis:
A. Adeno viru
B. Corono virus
C. Paramyxo virus
D. None of these
Correct : A. Adeno viru
84. Antibiotics used for treatment of cholera are
A. Tetracycline
B. Penicillins
C. Streptomycines
D. None of these
Correct : A. Tetracycline
85. Salmonella typhi is causative organism of
A. Undulent fever
B. Remittent fever
C. Dengue fever
D. Enteric fever
Correct : D. Enteric fever
86. Which of the following Salmonella paratyphi is the commonest in India?
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. None of these
Correct : A. A
87. In enteric fever, the organ lodging maximum number of the organism is
A. Liver
B. Gall bladder
C. Small intestine
D. Large intestine
Correct : B. Gall bladder
88. True about Enteric fever is
A. Bacteraemia in first week
B. Carrier in 90%
C. All serotypes cause the disease
D. Rosy spots on 18th day
Correct : A. Bacteraemia in first week
89. Gastroenteritis is caused by
A. Shigella
B. V.cholerae
C. V.cholera Parahaenolyticus
D. S.typhi
Correct : C. V.cholera Parahaenolyticus
90. E.coli produces the following toxins:
A. Enterotoxin
B. Endotoxins
C. Verocytotoxins
D. Hemolysins
Correct : B. Endotoxins
91. Diphtheria is caused by
A. Corynebacterium diphtheriae
B. C. Bovis
C. C. Jeikeium
D. C. equi
Correct : A. Corynebacterium diphtheriae
92. Causative organism of diphtheria was first demonstrated by
A. Robert Koch
B. Lois Pasteur
C. Klebs and Loeffler
D. Volhard and Fahr
Correct : C. Klebs and Loeffler
93. Coryne bacterium is
A. Gram positive
B. Resistant to Penicillin
C. Gram negative
D. Resistant to Chloramphenicol
Correct : A. Gram positive
94. C. diphtheriae consists of
A. Startch granules
B. Polymeta phosphate granules
C. Lipid granules
D. None of these
Correct : B. Polymeta phosphate granules
95. The incubation period of diphtheriae is
A. Upto 2 week
B. Upto 1 week
C. 2–4 weeks
D. None of these
Correct : C. 2–4 weeks
96. Diphtheria virulence test is
A. Ascoli’s thermoprecipitation test
B. Eleck’s gel precipitation test
C. C.R.P test
D. M.R.T. test
Correct : B. Eleck’s gel precipitation test
97. Diptheria toxoid is prepared by using
A. Aldehyde
B. Formalin
C. Phenols
D. None of these
Correct : B. Formalin
98. Diphtheria is an example of
A. Bacteraemia
B. Pyaemia
C. Septicemia
D. Toxaemia
Correct : D. Toxaemia
99. Main symptom of tuberculosis is
A. Tubercle formation
B. Liquid formation
C. Both a and b
D. None of these
Correct : A. Tubercle formation
100. BCG vaccine is for the prevention of
A. Brucellosi
B. Diphtheria
C. Botulism
D. Tuberculosis
Correct : D. Tuberculosis