Quiznetik
Microbiology | Set 5
1. Temperature used for hot air oven is
A. 100oC for 1 hour
B. 120oC for 1 hour
C. 160oC for 1 hour
D. 60oC for 1 hour
Correct : C. 160oC for 1 hour
2. Phenol co-efficient indicates
A. Efficiency of a disinfectant
B. Dilution of a disinfectant
C. Purity of a disinfectant
D. Quantity of a disinfectant
Correct : A. Efficiency of a disinfectant
3. This is an agar plate method and is commonly used for estimation of the number of bacteria in milk.
A. Standard Plate Count (SPC)
B. Spread plate
C. Lawn culture
D. Roll tube method
Correct : A. Standard Plate Count (SPC)
4. Agar is obtained form
A. Brown algae
B. Red algae
C. Green algae
D. Blue-green algae
Correct : B. Red algae
5. A gram positive organism which produces swarming on culture medium is
A. Salmonella
B. Clostridium
C. Staphylococci
D. Proteus
Correct : D. Proteus
6. Enhancement of virulence in bacteria is known as
A. Pathogenicity
B. Attenuation
C. Exaltation
D. Toxigenicity
Correct : C. Exaltation
7. For effective sterilization in an autoclave the temperature obtained is
A. 50oC
B. 100oC
C. 120oC
D. 180oC
Correct : C. 120oC
8. Spores are killed by
A. 70% alcohol
B. Glutaraldehyde
C. Autoclaving
D. Both b and c
Correct : D. Both b and c
9. Glassware are sterilized by
A. Autoclaving
B. Hot air over
C. Incineration
D. None of these
Correct : B. Hot air over
10. Tyndallisation was proposed by
A. Tyndall
B. Pasteur
C. Koch
D. Jenner
Correct : A. Tyndall
11. Viruses can be cultivated in
A. Lab media
B. Broth
C. Living cells
D. None of these
Correct : C. Living cells
12. By pasteurization
A. All the microorganisms can be removed
B. Only pathogenic forms can be removed
C. Only non-pathogenic forms can be removed
D. All of these are correct
Correct : B. Only pathogenic forms can be removed
13. The temperature required for pasteurization is
A. Above 100oC
B. Below 100oC
C. 100oC
D. None of these
Correct : B. Below 100oC
14. In the medium other than nutrients, if any substance is used in excess, that medium is
A. Enriched medium
B. Special medium
C. Enrichment medium
D. None of these
Correct : A. Enriched medium
15. Example for indicator medium is
A. Nutrient Agar
B. Nutrient broth
C. Wilson and Blair
D. Czapeck-dox medium
Correct : C. Wilson and Blair
16. Example of Anaerobic medium is
A. Robertson cooked-meat medium
B. Nutrient agar
C. Nutrient broth
D. Mac-Conkey’s agar
Correct : A. Robertson cooked-meat medium
17. The differentiate lactose and non-lactose fermentors, the medium used is
A. Wilson & lair
B. Blood Agar
C. Tetra thionate broth
D. Mac-Conkey’s Agar
Correct : D. Mac-Conkey’s Agar
18. Best method for getting pure culture is
A. Streak-plate
B. Agar slant
C. Both a & b
D. None of these
Correct : C. Both a & b
19. To transfer cultures from one place to another, the device used is
A. Slant
B. Needle
C. Inoculation loop
D. Autoclave
Correct : B. Needle
20. The bacterial culture prepared by pure culture is
A. Inoculum
B. Suspension
C. Dilution
D. None of these
Correct : A. Inoculum
21. Separation of a single colony is
A. Pure-culturing
B. Isolation
C. Separation
D. Both a and b
Correct : B. Isolation
22. Growth period of the culture is
A. Inoculation
B. Incubation
C. Incineration
D. Isolation
Correct : B. Incubation
23. At the temperature 160oC for one hour, complete sterilization occurs in
A. Autoclave
B. Hot air oven
C. Laminar flow
D. Incubator
Correct : B. Hot air oven
24. In autoclave, the principle involved is
A. Dry heat
B. Moist heat
C. Steam under pressur
D. Both b and c
Correct : D. Both b and c
25. The spores of th bacteria which can withstand the moist heat effect also
A. Bacillus subtilis
B. Coxiella burnetti
C. Bacillus stearothermophilus
D. Pseudomonas
Correct : C. Bacillus stearothermophilus
26. Factors on which disinfectivity of a disinfectant depends
A. Concentration of the substance
B. Time of action
C. pH of the medium and temperature suitable for the chemical
D. All of the above
Correct : D. All of the above
27. Aldehydes, which are most powerful disinfectants
A. Formaldehyde
B. Acetaldehyde
C. Glutamal aldehyde
D. Both a and c
Correct : D. Both a and c
28. Accridine dyes are more effective against
A. Gram positive
B. Gram negative
C. Mycoplasmas
D. Rickttsiae
Correct : A. Gram positive
29. The sterilizing agent is
A. Ethelene oxide
B. Oxygen
C. Nitrogen
D. Carbon tetrachloride
Correct : A. Ethelene oxide
30. Salts of heavy metals used as disinfectants are
A. Thiomersal
B. Phenyl mercury nitrate
C. Mercurochrome
D. All of these
Correct : D. All of these
31. Cultures are prepared by penetrating the inoculation loop with suspension into the medium, they are
A. Stock culture
B. Stabcultures
C. Sub-cultures
D. None of these
Correct : B. Stabcultures
32. The principle involved in the streak plate method is
A. Separation
B. Streaking
C. Isolation
D. Dilution
Correct : D. Dilution
33. Culture media for fungi are
A. Potato dextrose agar (PDA)
B. Sabouraud’s agar
C. Czapekdox agar
D. All of the above
Correct : D. All of the above
34. Spores of actinomycetes are very sensitive, killed at room temperature of
A. 52oC for 30 min.
B. 65oC for 30 min.
C. 70oC for 30 min.
D. 43oC for 30 min.
Correct : B. 65oC for 30 min.
35. The term that is used for the bacteria which can withstand pasteurization but does not grow at higher temperatures
A. Thermophiles
B. Extreme thermophiles
C. Thermoduric
D. Facultative thermophiles
Correct : C. Thermoduric
36. A common laboratory method of cultivating anaerobic micro-organisms is
A. Gas pack system
B. Brewer jar system
C. Pyrogallic acid over the cotton
D. None of these
Correct : C. Pyrogallic acid over the cotton
37. Alkaliphiles grow at pH value between
A. 1 to 6
B. 6 to 9
C. 1 to 11
D. 7 to 12
Correct : D. 7 to 12
38. The micro-organisms grow at high salinity are
A. Osmophile
B. Halophiles
C. Both a and b
D. None of these
Correct : C. Both a and b
39. Non-lactose fermenting colonies seen on Mac Conkey’s medium are
A. Salmonella typhi
B. Escherichia coli
C. Klebsiella pneumoniae
D. Shigella shigae
Correct : A. Salmonella typhi
40. Wilson and Blair medium is used for isolation of
A. Staphylococci
B. Salmonella typhosa
C. Vibrio cholerae
D. Shigella shigae
Correct : B. Salmonella typhosa
41. Laboratory diagnosis of enteric fever is based on
A. Blood culture
B. Urine and stool culture
C. Widal test
D. All of the above
Correct : D. All of the above
42. Shigella was first isolated by
A. Shiga
B. Schmitz
C. Sonnei
D. Robert Koch
Correct : C. Sonnei
43. Which of the following are gas producing Salmonella?
A. S.typhi
B. S.enteritidis
C. S.cholerasuis
D. S.typhimurium
Correct : B. S.enteritidis
44. Kauffmann white scheme is used to detect
A. Salmonella spp.
B. Shigella spp.
C. E.coli
D. None of these
Correct : A. Salmonella spp.
45. On Mac Conkey’s medium Esch. Coli forms
A. Colorless colonies
B. Greenish pigmentation
C. Pink coloured colonies
D. Medusa head appearance
Correct : C. Pink coloured colonies
46. C.diphtheriae requires
A. LJ medium
B. Mac Conkey’s medium
C. Potassium tellurite medium
D. PDA medium
Correct : C. Potassium tellurite medium
47. Culture medium for Mycobacterium tuberculosis
A. LJ medium
B. Mac Conkey’s medium
C. Wilson blair medium
D. None of these
Correct : A. LJ medium
48. Lepra bacillus is best cultured on
A. Armadillo’s brain
B. Foot pad of mice
C. Liver of guinea pig
D. Any of the above
Correct : B. Foot pad of mice
49. Culture medium for clostridia spp.
A. 76 Lower stein Jensen’s medium
B. Mac Conkey’s medium
C. Robertson’s cooked meat medium
D. None of these
Correct : C. Robertson’s cooked meat medium
50. Clsotridium welchii is positive for
A. Elek’s gel precipitation test
B. Nagler’s test
C. Weil felix test
D. Bacitracin test
Correct : B. Nagler’s test
51. Nagler’s reaction detects
A. Coagulase
B. Hyaluronidase
C. Lecithinase
D. None of these
Correct : C. Lecithinase
52. Incubation period of Cl. welchii is
A. 8-12 hour
B. 7-10 hours
C. 5-7 hours
D. 2-4 hours
Correct : A. 8-12 hour
53. The average incubation period of tetanus is
A. 2-3 day
B. 7-10 days
C. 14-21 days
D. 3-4 weeks
Correct : B. 7-10 days
54. Salt agar is used for
A. Streptococcu
B. Staphylococcus
C. Vibrio
D. Shigella
Correct : B. Staphylococcus
55. Culture medium of Leishmania is
A. Sabousand’s medium
B. NNN medium
C. Wilson Blair medium
D. Czapek – dox medium
Correct : B. NNN medium
56. A simple asexual spore which develops by budding is known as
A. Chlamydospore
B. Blastospore
C. Arthospore
D. Conidia
Correct : B. Blastospore
57. Culture medium used for fungus is
A. Sabouraud’s medium
B. Nutrient agar
C. Nutrient broth
D. Minimal agar medium
Correct : A. Sabouraud’s medium
58. For ster i l izat ion of fermentat ion equipment the method followed is
A. Radiation
B. Chemicals
C. Heating
D. All of these
Correct : D. All of these
59. The size of the virus can be determined by
A. Micrography
B. Ultra-centrifugation at high speed
C. Ultra-filteration
D. All of these
Correct : D. All of these
60. Differential staining of bacteria spore is related to
A. Albert’s staining
B. Lugol’ s staining
C. Moller’s staining
D. Indian ink preparation
Correct : C. Moller’s staining
61. Wilson and Blair bismuth sulphite medium is used for the growth
A. Salmonella typhi
B. Shigella dysenteriae
C. Vibrio cholerae
D. E. coli
Correct : A. Salmonella typhi
62. Which Rickettsia can be grown on blood agar media?
A. Lactobacilli
B. Streptobacillus
C. Bacillus anthrax
D. Vibrio cholerae
Correct : A. Lactobacilli
63. Which virus was first observed?
A. Hepatitis Virus
B. TMV
C. Cauliflower mossaic virus
D. None of these
Correct : B. TMV
64. The most important energy-yielding reaction for an aerobic organism is
A. Glycosi
B. EMP
C. KDPG
D. Both b and c
Correct : D. Both b and c
65. A disease that can be transmitted by an infectious agent from one individual to another was called
A. Epidemic
B. Pandemic
C. Communicable
D. Comma
Correct : C. Communicable
66. Cell cycle regulated by
A. Cyclin
B. Cdks
C. Cyclins and Cd ks
D. None of these
Correct : C. Cyclins and Cd ks
67. The prote inaceous compound are converted to ammonia by
A. Putrification bacteria
B. Ammonifiaction bacteria
C. Nitrification bacteria
D. Denitrifying bacteria
Correct : B. Ammonifiaction bacteria
68. A cell becomes flaccid when placed in a
A. Isotonic solution
B. Hypertonic solution
C. Hypotonic solution
D. Normal solution
Correct : B. Hypertonic solution
69. A mutation causing a substitution of one amino acid is called
A. Point mutation
B. Silent mutation
C. Missence mutation
D. None of these
Correct : C. Missence mutation
70. The formation spindle fibres in the process of cell division is prevented by
A. Corchicine
B. ATP
C. Hydrazine
D. All of these
Correct : C. Hydrazine
71. Important class of respiratory enzymes:
A. NAD
B. Cytochromes
C. ATPase
D. Hydrolases
Correct : B. Cytochromes
72. The primary mode of transmission of poliomyelitis virus:
A. Flie
B. Milk
C. Person to person
D. Food and water
Correct : D. Food and water
73. Genetic constitution of the cell is
A. Phenotype
B. Genotype
C. Cryptotype
D. Histotype
Correct : B. Genotype
74. The primary mode of transmission of poliomyelitis is
A. Oral route
B. Blood
C. Milk
D. Person to person
Correct : C. Milk
75. Cerebral malaria is caused by
A. Plasmodium vivox
B. P.ovale
C. P.falsiparum
D. P.malaria
Correct : C. P.falsiparum
76. Ergot disease is caused by
A. Puccinia
B. Rhizopus
C. Claveceps
D. Penicillium
Correct : C. Claveceps
77. Most bacteria require vitamins as
A. Growth Factors
B. Sources of energy
C. Sources of carbon
D. Sources of electron donars
Correct : A. Growth Factors
78. Which of these is a trace element for bacteria?
A. Mg+2
B. Na+
C. Ca+2
D. Mn+2
Correct : B. Na+
79. Virulent factor in pneumococcus is
A. Cell wall
B. Capsule
C. Mesosomes
D. Emdotoxins
Correct : D. Emdotoxins
80. The Bacter ia move in response to magnetic field is
A. Spirochets
B. Treponema
C. Aquaspirillum Magnetotacticum
D. None of these
Correct : C. Aquaspirillum Magnetotacticum
81. Nagler reaction detects
A. Corynebacterium diphtheriae
B. Clostridium tetani
C. Clostridium perfringens
D. Clostridium botulinum
Correct : C. Clostridium perfringens
82. The following organisms lack definite cell wall
A. Mycoplasma
B. L-forms
C. Both a and b
D. Bacteria
Correct : C. Both a and b
83. The following disease are caused by Mycoplasma except
A. Pneumonia in human beings
B. Little leaf of Brinjal
C. Dwarf disease of Mulbery
D. Citrus canker
Correct : D. Citrus canker
84. Mycotoxins are produced by
A. Bacteria
B. Fungi
C. Algae
D. Protozoans
Correct : B. Fungi
85. The main product of glycolysis under aerobic conditions is
A. Pyruvate
B. Lactate
C. None of these
D. Both a and b
Correct : A. Pyruvate
86. The protein moiety of an enzyme is known as
A. Holo enzyme
B. Apo enzyme
C. Co enzyme
D. Enzyme
Correct : B. Apo enzyme
87. Yeast extract is an excellent source of
A. A Vitamin
B. Proteins
C. B Vitamin
D. Carbohydrates
Correct : C. B Vitamin
88. Example of anaerobic medium
A. Wilson blair medium
B. Mac conkey broth
C. Robertson’s cooked meat medium
D. EMB agar
Correct : C. Robertson’s cooked meat medium
89. Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD) is a measure of:
A. Industrial wastes poured into water bodies
B. Extent to which water is polluted with organic compounds
C. Amount of carbon monoxide inseparably combined with haemoglobin
D. Amount of oxygen needed by green plants during night
Correct : A. Industrial wastes poured into water bodies
90. An example of competitive inhibition of an enzyme is the inhibition of
A. Succinic dehydrogenase by malonic acid
B. Cytochrome oxidase by cyanide
C. Hexokinase by glucose-6-phosphate
D. Carbonic anhydrase by carbon dioxide
Correct : A. Succinic dehydrogenase by malonic acid
91. The following organisms have been proposed as sources of single cell protein
A. Bacteria
B. Yeasts
C. Algae
D. All the three
Correct : D. All the three
92. Nitrites are oxidized to nitrates by a microorganism
A. Nitrosomona
B. Nitrosococcus
C. Nitrobacter
D. Azatobacter
Correct : C. Nitrobacter
93. The major constituents in agar are
A. Fat
B. Aminoacids
C. Polysaccharides
D. Polypeptides
Correct : C. Polysaccharides
94. Multiple antibiotic resistance is mediated by
A. Episome
B. Plasmid
C. Colplasmid
D. Both b and c
Correct : B. Plasmid
95. “Antagonism “ is seen in
A. Lag phase
B. Plasmids
C. Log phase
D. None of these
Correct : D. None of these
96. the first phase of a growth curve is
A. Log phase
B. Lag phase
C. γ phase
D. Both a and b
Correct : B. Lag phase
97. In gram positive and gram negative bacteria the electron transport contains
A. Naphthquinone
B. Plastoquinone
C. Ubiquinone
D. Both a and b
Correct : A. Naphthquinone
98. Growth in a closed system, affected by nutrient limitation and waste product accumulation is called
A. Batch culturing
B. Ascus
C. Fruiting body
D. Sporangiosphore
Correct : A. Batch culturing
99. Cells are active and synthesizing new protoplasm. This stage of growth is called
A. Lag phase
B. Stationary phase
C. Log phase
D. All of these
Correct : A. Lag phase
100. Which one of the following tissues can metabolize glucose, fatty acids and ketone bodies for ATP production?
A. Liver
B. Muscle
C. Brain
D. R.B.C
Correct : B. Muscle