Quiznetik
Microbiology | Set 4
1. Streptococcus forms causes which type of infections?
A. Fever
B. Zoonotic
C. Pyogenic
D. None of these
Correct : D. None of these
2. Streptococcus pyogenes classification is based on
A. Protein M
B. Protein T
C. Protein R
D. Polysaccharide C
Correct : A. Protein M
3. α-haemolytic streptococci are also known as
A. Str. pyogene
B. Virulence group
C. Viridans group
D. None of these
Correct : C. Viridans group
4. Streptolysin O is inactivated by
A. CO2
B. Nitrogen
C. Oxygen
D. Serum
Correct : C. Oxygen
5. Streptolysin ‘S’ is
A. Oxygen unstable
B. Thermostable
C. Oxygen stable
D. None of these
Correct : C. Oxygen stable
6. Influenza virus is identified by using
A. Haemaggulutinin inhibition test
B. Tissue culture method
C. Embryonated eggs
D. Plaque formation
Correct : A. Haemaggulutinin inhibition test
7. Growth of influenza virus is identified by
A. Cytopathic effect
B. Hela cells
C. Both a and b
D. None of these
Correct : B. Hela cells
8. Glutamic acid is oxidized by the species except
A. melienasis
B. abortus b.
C. B. suis
D. B.canis
Correct : D. B.canis
9. “Prozone phenomenon” is encountered in
A. A typical mycobacteria
B. Brucella
C. Streptococcus
D. Bordetella pertusis
Correct : B. Brucella
10. Of the following, this is a capsulated organism
A. Bacillus anthraci
B. Escherichia-coli
C. Corynebacterium
D. Brucella
Correct : A. Bacillus anthraci
11. Anthrax is a
A. Vector borne
B. Zoonotic infection
C. Wound bone
D. Soil borne
Correct : B. Zoonotic infection
12. Mc Fadyean’s reaction is used to detect
A. Bacillus anthraci
B. Brucella
C. Corynaebacterium
D. None of these
Correct : A. Bacillus anthraci
13. Gasgangarene bacillus is
A. Facultative anaerobe
B. Obligate anaerobe
C. Facultative aerobe
D. Obligate aerobe
Correct : B. Obligate anaerobe
14. Coagulase test is used for
A. Salmonella
B. Staphylococcus
C. Bordetella
D. Pneumococcus
Correct : B. Staphylococcus
15. HIV is belonging to
A. Retro Viridae
B. Rhabdo Viridae
C. Toga Viridae
D. Paramyxo Viridae
Correct : A. Retro Viridae
16. Special feature of Retro viruses
A. Reverse transcriptase
B. RNA directed DNA polymerases
C. Both a & b
D. Boils
Correct : C. Both a & b
17. AIDS virus is
A. RNA viru
B. DNA virus
C. Retro virus
D. Entero virus
Correct : C. Retro virus
18. AIDS is caused by
A. HTLV – I
B. Bunya virus
C. HTLV – III
D. All
Correct : D. All
19. Which of the following organisms is most commonly associated with AIDS pneumonia?
A. Klebsiella
B. Str. pneumonia
C. Mycoplasma
D. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Correct : D. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
20. Sero conservation in HIV infection takes place in
A. 3 week
B. 6 weeks
C. 9 weeks
D. 12 weeks
Correct : C. 9 weeks
21. Following is the marker of HIV infection in blood:
A. Reverse transcriptase
B. DNA polymerase
C. RNA polymerase
D. None of these
Correct : A. Reverse transcriptase
22. Which of the following is the most specific in diagnosis of AIDS?
A. IHA
B. Western blot
C. ELISA
D. Immuno electrophoresis
Correct : B. Western blot
23. The interval period between HIV infection and appearance of antibodies in serum is called
A. Intrinsic period
B. Incubation period
C. Window period
D. None of these
Correct : C. Window period
24. Screening test for AIDS is
A. Western blot test
B. ELISA test
C. Both a and b
D. VDRL test
Correct : B. ELISA test
25. Confirmatory test for AIDS is
A. Western blot test
B. ELISA test
C. Karpas test
D. Fujerbio test
Correct : A. Western blot test
26. The most common infection in AIDS is
A. LGV
B. CMV
C. Pnemocystis carnii
D. Syphilis
Correct : C. Pnemocystis carnii
27. During AIDS, HIV infects
A. CD3 lymphocyte
B. CD4 lymphocytes
C. CD2 lymphocytes
D. Blymphocytes
Correct : B. CD4 lymphocytes
28. Lab diagnosis of Leishmaniasis is done by
A. CFT
B. Peripheral smear
C. Blood culture
D. All of these
Correct : D. All of these
29. Those fungi which do not have a sexual stage are classified as
A. Phycomycete
B. Ascomycetes
C. Basidiomycetes
D. Fungi imperfecti
Correct : D. Fungi imperfecti
30. Tinea capitis is
A. Ring worm of the foot
B. Ring worm of scalp
C. Ring worm of non-hairy skin of body
D. Both a and c
Correct : C. Ring worm of non-hairy skin of body
31. Diagnosis of bacterial disease can be made by
A. Finding bacteria in pathological fluids
B. Isolation of bacteria by culture from exudates or blood
C. Both a and b
D. None of these
Correct : C. Both a and b
32. Staphylococcus aureus are characterized by
A. Formation of acid in sucrose, dextrose
B. Liquification of gelatin due to production of gelatinase
C. Strains are catalase positive
D. All of above
Correct : C. Strains are catalase positive
33. Cholera occurs in _______ form
A. Endemic
B. Epidemic
C. Sporadic
D. all
Correct : D. all
34. Endemic typhus is caused by
A. R.mooseri
B. R.quintana
C. R.prowazekii
D. any of them
Correct : A. R.mooseri
35. A man is usually infected for tick typhus by –
A. Drinking milk of sick animals
B. Tending cattle
C. Inhaling infected dust
D. All of these
Correct : C. Inhaling infected dust
36. In Gram positive bacteria, ratio of RNA to DNA is
A. 8 : 1
B. 1 : 2
C. Almost equal
D. None of these
Correct : A. 8 : 1
37. Ziehl – Neelson stain is a ______
A. Simple stain
B. Counter stain
C. Differential stain
D. None of them
Correct : C. Differential stain
38. Wet mount slide preparations are used in microbiology as they allow to see
A. Size and shape of individual organisms
B. Characteristic arrangement or grouping of cells
C. Motility of the organism
D. All of these
Correct : D. All of these
39. Freeze-etch particles (used in preparing cell for electron microscopy) can be located in the
A. Cytoplasm
B. Cell wall
C. Cell membrane
D. Nucleus
Correct : C. Cell membrane
40. The properties common to Gram positive and negative cell walls are
A. Equal susceptibility to hydrolysis by lysozyme
B. Peptide crosslinks between polysaccharides
C. Rigid peptoglycon activity
D. Greater resistance to drying than vegetative cell.
Correct : D. Greater resistance to drying than vegetative cell.
41. The main difference in true bacteria and mycoplasma is that it does not posses –
A. Flagella
B. Cell wall
C. ATP synthesis
D. A capsule
Correct : B. Cell wall
42. The organism responsible for retarding penetration of host cell by an inhibitor of ATP synthesis.
A. M.pneumoniae
B. Rickettsia rickettsii
C. Chlamydia trachomatis
D. Chlamydia psitacci
Correct : B. Rickettsia rickettsii
43. Mycoplasmas differ from Chalamy-diae in that, it
A. has ability to cause urinary tract infection
B. lack of atrue bacterial cell wall
C. susceptible to penicillin
D. All of these
Correct : B. lack of atrue bacterial cell wall
44. Fungal disease in human is caused by –
A. Inhalation of conidia
B. Invasion of mucous membrane
C. Contamination of wounds with conidia or myceliat fragments
D. All of these
Correct : D. All of these
45. A polysaccharide capsule is present on cryptococci which –
A. Inhibits phagocytosis
B. Is an aid to diagnose
C. Cross reacts with rheumatoid factor
D. All of these
Correct : A. Inhibits phagocytosis
46. The largest protozoa is –
A. Balantidium coli
B. Entamoeba coli
C. Trichomonus vaginalis
D. Toxoplasma gondii
Correct : A. Balantidium coli
47. Premunition is particularly seen in –
A. Ascari
B. Giardia
C. Plasmodium
D. None of these
Correct : C. Plasmodium
48. Which of the following vaccine contains attenuated form of bacteria?
A. BCG
B. TAB
C. Polio
D. Cholera
Correct : A. BCG
49. The bacteria, which is motile at 22oC but non-motile at 37oC is
A. Tranformation
B. Transduction
C. Conjugation
D. Cell fusion
Correct : D. Cell fusion
50. Techoic acid is –
A. Found in the walls of Gram positive bacteria
B. Provide receptors for phages
C. Make up outer wall of Gram negative bacteria
D. Influence the permeability of the membrane
Correct : A. Found in the walls of Gram positive bacteria
51. One flagelium at one end of the organ is called –
A. Monotrichate
B. Amphitrichate
C. Iophotrichate
D. Peritrichate
Correct : A. Monotrichate
52. What is the function of bacterial capsule?
A. Production of organism from phagocytosis
B. Helps in adherence of bacteria to surface in its environment
C. Both a and b
D. None of these
Correct : C. Both a and b
53. Which of the following is the charachteristic of bacterial spore?
A. Highly refractile
B. Usually dehydrated
C. Sensitive to formaldehyde
D. All of these
Correct : D. All of these
54. Which of the following are acid fast structures?
A. Mycobacteria
B. Bacterial spores
C. Nocardia
D. All of these
Correct : D. All of these
55. All of the following are acid fast structures except
A. Clostridium
B. Bacterium spores
C. Exoskeleton
D. None of these
Correct : A. Clostridium
56. All of the following are energy source of bacteria except
A. Oxidation of inorganic compounds
B. Oxidation of organic compounds
C. Absorption of heat
D. Utilisation of visible light
Correct : C. Absorption of heat
57. Identify the obligate anaerobes
A. Salmonella
B. Vibrio cholera
C. Cl. tetani
D. Sarcinae
Correct : C. Cl. tetani
58. Streptococci which are destroyed at 60°C for 30 minutes
A. Preptostreptococci
B. Strepto viridans
C. Strepto hemolyticus
D. All of these
Correct : D. All of these
59. Toxins or enzymes which are not produced by streptococcus pyrogens
A. Hyaluronide
B. Phosphate
C. Hemolysin
D. Streptokinase
Correct : B. Phosphate
60. Cholera red reaction is identified by
A. Sulphuric acid
B. Nitric acid
C. Hydrochloric acid
D. Carbolic acid
Correct : A. Sulphuric acid
61. Diagnosis of carrier of salmonella typhi may be shown by
A. Fecal culture
B. Bile culture
C. Urine culture
D. All of these
Correct : D. All of these
62. Daisy head colony is associated with
A. M.tuberculosi
B. C.diphtheriae
C. Cl. tetani
D. None of these
Correct : B. C.diphtheriae
63. Neil mooseri reaction is related to
A. Rickettsiae
B. Chlamydiae
C. Spirochaetes
D. Clostridium
Correct : A. Rickettsiae
64. All of the following are DNA viruses except –
A. Parvo viru
B. Paramyxo virus
C. Herpes virus
D. Pix virus
Correct : B. Paramyxo virus
65. The dengue fever virus is –
A. Arbo viru
B. Echo virus
C. Entero virus
D. Orthomyxo virus
Correct : A. Arbo viru
66. Dengue fever is caused by –
A. Bacteria
B. Virus
C. Fungi
D. Rickettsia
Correct : B. Virus
67. Which of the following characters are related to viruses?
A. No growth on inanimate culture media
B. Not sensitive to antibiotics
C. No energy producing enzymes
D. Insensitive to interferon
Correct : D. Insensitive to interferon
68. Main causative organism of chiken pox is
A. Fox viru
B. Mumps virus
C. Measles virus
D. None of these
Correct : D. None of these
69. Rickesia are stained with
A. Giesna and Castaneda stains
B. Macchiavello and Gimnezstains
C. Both a and b
D. Malachite green
Correct : C. Both a and b
70. The medium used in membrane filter technique was
A. EMB agar
B. EMR-Vp medium
C. Lactose broth
D. Endo agar
Correct : B. EMR-Vp medium
71. Lysol is a
A. Sterilent
B. Disinfectant
C. Antiseptic
D. Antifungal agent
Correct : B. Disinfectant
72. Which of the following is a neutral stain?
A. Picric acid
B. Gmiemsa
C. Neutral red
D. Malachite green
Correct : C. Neutral red
73. Peptone water medium is an example for
A. Synthetic medium
B. Semisynthetic medium
C. Differential medium
D. None of these
Correct : B. Semisynthetic medium
74. The method in which the cells are frozen dehydrated is called
A. Pasteurization
B. Dessication
C. Disinfection
D. Lypophilization
Correct : D. Lypophilization
75. The techn ique used to avo id all microorganisms is accomplished by
A. Sterlization
B. Disinfection
C. Surgical sterilization
D. Disinfection Sterilization
Correct : A. Sterlization
76. Thermal death time is
A. Time required to kill all cells at a given temperature
B. Temperature that kills all cells in a given time
C. Time and temperature needed to kill all cells
D. All of the above
Correct : B. Temperature that kills all cells in a given time
77. A culture medium the exact composition of which is not known was called as
A. Simple
B. Complex
C. Defined
D. Natural
Correct : A. Simple
78. Elek’s gel diffusion test is used for the detection of
A. Tetani toxin
B. Cholera toxin
C. Diophtheria toxin
D. Toxoid
Correct : C. Diophtheria toxin
79. Temperature required for pasteurization is
A. Above 150oC
B. Below 100oC
C. 110oC
D. None of these
Correct : B. Below 100oC
80. Separation of a single bacterial colony is calle
A. Isolation
B. Separation
C. Pure culturing
D. All of these
Correct : A. Isolation
81. Wh ich of the fo l low ing is ion iz ing radiation?
A. U.V. ray
B. IR
C. γ-rays
D. None of these
Correct : C. γ-rays
82. Wh ich of the fo l low ing induces dimerisation of thymine?
A. X-ray
B. U.V. rays
C. ã-rays
D. None of these
Correct : B. U.V. rays
83. When food material are preserved at a temperature just above freezing temperature, the process is called.
A. Freezing
B. Pasteurisation
C. Chilling
D. Frosting
Correct : C. Chilling
84. Wh ich of the fo l low ing method of sterilization has no effect on spores?
A. Drying
B. Hot air oven
C. Autoclave
D. None of these
Correct : A. Drying
85. Treponema pa l l idum can be best indentified using
A. Fluorescence microscope
B. Bright field microscope
C. Dark field microscope
D. Flourescence microscope
Correct : C. Dark field microscope
86. Autoclaving is carried at
A. Dry heat
B. Atmospheric pressure
C. 120oC
D. All of these
Correct : C. 120oC
87. Temperature in pasteurization is
A. 62.8oC
B. 35.7o
C. 68.2oC
D. 60.8oC
Correct : A. 62.8oC
88. The bacterial culture prepared by pure culture method is
A. Inoculum
B. Suspension
C. Dilution
D. None of these
Correct : A. Inoculum
89. Algae are rich in
A. Carbohydrate
B. Proteins
C. Vitamins
D. All of these
Correct : D. All of these
90. L-Lysine is produced from
A. Corynebacterium glutamicum
B. Clostridium botulinum
C. Mycobacterium sps
D. Pseudomonas
Correct : A. Corynebacterium glutamicum
91. The orderly increase in the quantity of all of the cellular components is known as
A. Reproduction
B. Growth
C. Binary fission
D. None of these
Correct : B. Growth
92. Theobacillus thio oxidans grow at pH
A. 7.0
B. 1.0
C. 6.0
D. 9.5
Correct : B. 1.0
93. Slow freezing requires the conditions
A. 0oC to 15oC for 15 min.
B. – 6 oC to – 10oC for 10 min.
C. – 15oC to 3 to 72 hrs.
D. None of these
Correct : C. – 15oC to 3 to 72 hrs.
94. Discontinuous heating is called
A. Pasteurization
B. Sterilization
C. Fermentation
D. Tindalisation
Correct : D. Tindalisation
95. Isolation is
A. Purification of culture
B. Introduction of inoculum
C. Separation of a single colony
D. To grow microorganisms on surfaces
Correct : C. Separation of a single colony
96. The condition required for autoclave
A. 121oC temp.and 15 lbs. pressure for 20 min.
B. 120oC temp.and 20 lbs. pressure for 30 min
C. 150oC temp.for 1 hr.
D. 130oC temp for 2 hr.
Correct : C. 150oC temp.for 1 hr.
97. Lysozyme is effective against
A. Gram negative bacteria
B. Gram positive bacteria
C. Protozoa
D. Helminthes
Correct : B. Gram positive bacteria
98. Blood agar medium is
A. Enrichment medium
B. Enriched medium
C. Selective medium
D. Differential medium
Correct : B. Enriched medium
99. Infrared radiation is a method of sterilization by
A. Dry heat
B. Moist heat
C. Chemical method
D. Mechanical method
Correct : D. Mechanical method
100. Lyophilization means
A. Sterilization
B. Freeze-drying
C. Burning to ashes
D. Exposure to formation
Correct : B. Freeze-drying