1. What is the present scenario of deforestation in India as compared to beginning of twentieth century?
Correct : A. Beginning of twentieth century 30%, now 19.4%
2. What should be the forest cover recommended by National Forest policy (1988)?
Correct : A. 33% for the plains, 67%for the hills
3. Ozone depletion in the stratosphere will cause .. AIMS1992
Correct : A. Increased incidence of skin cancer
4. Eutrophicatico causes decrease in .. AIMS1996
Correct : A. Dissolved oxygen
5. Green house effect is caused by… AFMC2002
Correct : B. Infra red rays
6. Ozone hole refers to… AFMC2001
Correct : C. Hole in ozone layer in stratosphere
7. Green house effect is due to..… AMU2001
Correct : D. Both B & C
8. As it travels along the food chain the concentration of DDT.. KCET2001
Correct : A. Increase
9. Reason for ozone hole is KCET2001
Correct : A. Increased UV radiation
10. In the coming year skin related disorders might be more common due to …
Correct : C. Depletion of ozone layer
11. Which unit is used for measuring thickness of ozone layer? AIIMS2009
Correct : B. DU
12. Match the items given in
column I and II
Column-1 Column-II
(P) Catalytic converter (i) Cl
(Q) Scrubber (ii) CO &Nitrogen oxide
(R) Polyblend (iii) SO2
(S) Freon (iv) Plastic
Correct : A. (p-ii), (q-iii), (r-iv), (s-i)
13. Match the items given in column I and II KeralaPMT2011
Column-1 Column-II
(P) Electrostatic precipitator (i) Removes gases like SO2
(Q) Scrubber (ii) Removes impurities from exhaust of vehicles
(R) Catalytic converter (iii) Removes particulate matter
Correct : B. (p-iii),(q-i),(r-ii)
14. Match the items given in column I and II
Column-1 Column-II
(P) CNG (i) Rhodium
(Q) Ozone (ii) Db
(R) Catalytic converter (iii) Du
(S) Noise (iv) Non carcinogenic
Correct : B. (p-iv), (q-iii), (r-i), (s-ii)
15. Match the items given in column I and II
Column-1 Column-II
(P) Biodegradable waste (i) Bottles,cans,metals
(Q) Nonbiodegradable waste (ii) Domestic waste,cow dung
(R) Recyclable waste (iii) Mercury,DDT
Correct : B. (p-ii),(q-i),(r-iii)
16. Match the items given in column I and II
Column-1 Column-II
(P) Global warming (i) Mercury,DDT
(Q) Eutrophication (ii) Rise in sea level
(R) Biological magnification (iii) CH4,CO2
(S) Green house effect (iv) Algal bloom
Correct : D. (p-ii), (q-iv), (r-i), (s-iii)
17. Match the items given in column I and II
Column-1 Column-II
(P) 1988 (i) Noise pollution added in Air act
(Q) 1974 (ii) Concept of joint forest management
(R) 1980 (iii) Chipako movement
(S) 1987 (iv) Natoinal Forest policy
Correct : C. (p-iv), (q-iii),(r-ii) ,(s-i)
18. Match the items given in column I ,II and III
Column-1 Column-II Column-III
(P) Garhwal (i) Ramesh Dagar (a) Bishnoi Community
(Q) Jodhpur (ii) Ahmad Khan (b) Chipako movement
(R) Haryana (iii) Sunderlal Bahuguna (c) Polyblend
(S) Bangalore (iv) Amruta Devi (d) Organic farming
Correct : A. (p-iii-b), (q-iv-a), (r-i-d), (s-ii-c)
19. Match the items given in column I and II
Column-1 Column-II
(P) Water accumulation in potted plant (i) Chemical fertilizers
(Q) Aquatic weed (ii) Mercury,DDT
(R) Eutrophication (iii) Eichhornia
(S) Nonbiodegradable (iv) Water logging
Correct : D. (p-iv), (q-iii), (r-i), (s-ii)
20. For the given statement which option is correct?
Statement:
(X) Air pollution causes injury to all living organisms.
(Y) The harmful effect depends on the concentration of pollutants, duration .
Correct : A. Both X and Y are correct.Y gives correct explanation for X
21. For the given statement which option is correct?
Statement:
(X) Polyblend is a fine powder of recycled modified plastic.
(Y) In Bangalore roads are made of mixture of Polyblend and bitumen which increases Strength of the road.
Correct : A. Both X and Y are correct.Y gives correct explanation for X
22. For the given statement which option is correct?
Statement:
(X) Due to green revolution production of crop is more.
(Y) Water logging and soil salinity is the outcome of green revolution.
Correct : A. Both X and Y are correct.Y gives correct explanation for X
23. For the given statement which option is correct?
Statement:
(X)Unleaded petrol should be used in automobiles with catalytic converter to reduce pollution.
(Y)Lead in the petrol inactivates Rhodium and palladium .
Correct : A. Both X and Y are correct.Y gives correct explanation for X
24. For the given statement which option is correct? Statement:
(X)DDT and plastic both are nonbiodegradable Waste
(Y) As the time passes, Pollutants of domestic sewage does not remain pollutants.
Correct : B. Both X and Y are correct.Y does not give correct explanation for X
25. For the given statement which option is correct?
Statement
(X)Organic farming means agriculture with the help of chemicals.
(Y)500 members of Haryana Kissan welfare club have adopted this agricultural practice.
Correct : D. X is wrong and Y is correct
26. For the given statement which option is correct?
Statement
(X)Deforestation is one of the important factor for global warming.
(Y)Green house gas CO2 increases due to deforestation. .
Correct : A. Both X and Y are correct.Y gives correct explanation for X
27. How many molecules of ozone canbe decomposed by one atom of chlorine?
Correct : C. 1.00.000
28. Which gas is responsible for increase in atmosphere temperature?
Correct : B. CO2
29. Slash and burn agriculture means..
Correct : B. Jhum cultivation
30. Which of the following is responsible for protection of living organism on earth?
Correct : A. Ozone layer
31. With respect to value of BOD, arrange the following in descending order.
i) Distilled water
ii) Tap water
iii)Industrial effluent
iv)Sewage discharge in the river
Correct : B. iii –iv – ii - i
32. Domestic sewage with -------% impurities is unfit for human use.
Correct : C. 0.1%
33. Green house Effect is the cumulative result of the influence of certain gases. Identify the gas which is not involved in the influence Karnataka2005
Correct : C. N2
34. If fertilizers are added to fresh water .. AIIMS2002
Correct : B. Eutropication will occur
35. With the help of electrostatic precipitator which Air pollutant produced by cement factory is separated?
Correct : D. SPM
36. Which of the following does not occur when the sewage is discharged into the river?
Correct : A. Eutropication
37. Alternative forms of a gene are called _____________.
Correct : D. Alleles
38. Heredity or inheritance of specific traits became clearer due to
Correct : B. Mendel worked on garden peas
39. Which of the following sentences is true about the evolutionary process?
Correct : A. There is no real 'progress' in the idea of evolution.
40. Microevolution takes place due to
Correct : B. blastogenic variation
41. The difference between ho*mo sapiens and the ho*mo erectus was ____. .
Correct : D. The size of their brain of ho*mo eructus was smaller to ho*mo sapiens
42. By studying analogous structures we look for ______.
Correct : A. similarities in appearance and function but different in structure.
43. __________ was a predecessor of Darwin and he developed the theory of acquired characteristics.
Correct : D. Lamarck
44. Which of these is not a living fossil?
Correct : A. Archaeopteryx
45. Which of the following are not the examples of analogous structures?
Correct : B. Wings of bat and forelimb of cattle.
46. The scientist who cut off the tails of mice of successive generations to prove Lamarck's theory was
wrong was _____.
Correct : A. Weismann
47. Human being belongs to the species of_____.
Correct : C. ho*mo sapiens
48. Links between organisms that show branching pattern of evolutionary relationships are shown
by_____.
Correct : C. phylogenetic trees
49. Speciation is the evolutionary process by which _____.
Correct : A. a new gene pool is formed
50. Evidences of evolutionary relationships is found in ______.
Correct : B. fossils
51. Which of the following is not a source of variation in a population?
Correct : D. None of the above.
52. Which of the following examples of variation is not important from an evolutionary standpoint?
Correct : C. Differences due to diet, health, age or accident that have no affect on an individual's ability to survive and reproduce.
53. Why is genetic variation important from an evolutionary standpoint?
Correct : D. All of the above.
54. Which of the following is an example of genetic variation?
Correct : A. Two children have different eye colors.
55. Which of the following is an example of environmental variation?
Correct : B. Marge dyes her hair blue.
56. What's the difference between natural selection and sexual selection?
Correct : C. Sexual selection is a type of natural selection.
57. What's the difference between genetic drift and change due to natural selection?
Correct : B. Genetic drift does not involve competition between members of a species.
58. According to our reading, how did George Cuvier account for extinctions in nature?
Correct : D. Extinctions are due to catastrophic events.
59. Why, according to our reading, did Darwin take so long to publish the Origin of Species?
Correct : D. Darwin was concerned about the reaction of others to the implications of his theory.
60. In which of the following ways is natural selection not analogous to artificial selection?
Correct : A. With natural selection "picking" is due to the fit of an organism with its environment; whereas in artificial selection, the breeder "picks" which organisms will breed.
61. Why is the advent of reproductive isolation important from an evolutionary standpoint?
Correct : A. When the organisms comprising two populations of a species can no longer interbreed, the flow of genetic material between them stops.
62. If the theory of natural selection is the survival of the fitness, and the fittest are identified as those who survive, why isn't it regarded as a tautology (a statement that is true only because of the meaning of the terms) ?
Correct : D. A and C.
63. The variation natural selection operates on is due to random mutations. What does this imply about natural selection?
Correct : B. Natural selection is nevertheless a directed process- the likelihood one variant will be favored in a given environment over another is predictable, even if the origin is not.
64. How was Mendel's work ultimately reconciled with Darwin's theory of natural selection during the evolutionary synthesis in the 1930s and 1940s?
Correct : D. A and C.
65. Which of the following is the evidence for Darwin's theory of common descent?
Correct : D. All of above
66. What is the relationship between the wing of a bird and the wing of a bat?
Correct : C. A and B.
67. Which of the following is not an example of a macro evolutionary process?
Correct : D. Over a short period of time, the frequency of a single gene declines from 10 to 8%.
68. Which of the following is an example of an ancestral homology?
Correct : A. Almost all modern reptiles, birds and mammals have forelimbs, a trait they also share with contemporary amphibians.
69. Which of the following is not an example of micro evolutionary change?
Correct : D. The last American eagle dies off, leading to the extinction of the species.
70. Which of the following are difficult to explain in terms of natural selection?
Correct : D. Some traits appear to have no adaptive value.
71. Which of the following is not an example of a monophyletic taxon?
Correct : A. The first fish species and every living organism that looks like a fish .
72. Which of the following are kingdoms?
Correct : D. All of the above.
73. Which of the following must increase over geological time according to evolutionary biologists?
Correct : D. All of the above.
74. Why is similarity misleading when it comes to inferring evolutionary relationships?
Correct : C. A and B only.
75. Which of the following are the most distantly related to one another?
Correct : A. Sunfish and dolphins.
76. How does an evolutionary biologist explain why a species of birds has evolved a larger beak size?
Correct : C. Some members of the ancestral population had larger beaks than others. If larger beak size was advantageous, they would be more likely to survive and reproduce. As such, large beaked birds increased in frequency relative to small beaked birds.
77. How might an evolutionary biologist explain why a species of species of salamander becomes blind after colonizing a cave?
Correct : B. Members of the ancestral population that colonized the cave differed in their ability to see. If maintaining the ability to see in the cave was a waste of energy, blind salamanders might actually have more offspring than those who could see.
78. Which of the following is the most fit in an evolutionary sense?
Correct : B. A lion who has many cubs, eight of which live to adulthood.
79. A biologist is trying to infer how five closely related species of snakes are related to one another. She notices that some of the snakes have forked tongues and others do not. Which of the following would help her distinguish the ancestral state?
Correct : B. She locates a specimen of a more distantly related snake to see if it has a forked tongue.
80. The surface temperature of the sun is ______.
Correct : A. 6000o C
81. The earth like other planets formed from ______.
Correct : B. cloud of gas and dust
82. The experiment to show the production of mice in 21 days from a dirty shirt placed in contact with kernels of wheat was carried out by ______.
Correct : B. Jean Baptiste Van Helmont
83. The first formed organism (riboorganism) used only ................. for catalyzing reactions.
Correct : D. RNA
84. Anaerobic photosynthetic bacteria appeared on the earth about ______.
Correct : D. 3500 million years ago
85. The sequence of origin of life may be considered as ______.
Correct : C. Nucleic acid Amino acid Chlorophyll
86. The primitive cell-like colloidal particles capable of growth and division were ______.
Correct : C. eobionts
87. The stage for the evolution of autotrophs was set with the evolution of ______.
Correct : D. chlorophyll
88. The first organism to be found on a bare rock is a (an) ______.
Correct : C. lichen
89. The doctrine of evolution is concerned with ______.
Correct : C. biogenesis
90. The era called ‘age of prokaryotic microbes’ is ______.
Correct : A. archaezoic
91. The determine which molecules might have formed spontaneously on early earth, Stanley Miller used an apparatus with an atmosphere containing ______.
Correct : D. hydrogen, ammonia, methane and water vapour
92. The utilization of elements and compounds in nature generation theory because ______.
Correct : C. material cycles
93. What is ethnobotany ?
Correct : A. Relationship between primitive plants and people
94. The first photoautotroph organisms were ______.
Correct : D. bacteria
95. Who performed this famous experiment to prove origin of life ?
Correct : C. Urey and Miller
96. How much temperature was used for the gases to react ?
Correct : B. 130o C
97. What was the mixture of gases used in chamber marked A ?
Correct : A. Methane (CH4), ammonia (NH3), hydrogen (H2), and water (H2O)
98. What was the resultant found in place marked E ?
Correct : C. Some amino acids as glycine and alanine and
99. Match the appropriatc :
Column – I Column – II
A. Cosmozoan theory (i) Oxidizing environment rich in autotrophs like cyanobacteria
B. Spontaneous generation (ii) Microspheres
C. Primary abiogenesis (iii) Hot ball of gases
D. Atmosphere I (iv) Oparin and Haldane
E. Atmosphere III (v) Panspermia
F. Sydney Fox (vi) Abiogenesis
A B C D E F A B C D E F
Correct : A. (v) (vi) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
100. A. The first molecules formed for replicating cells were most probably RNA.
R. This was proved by origin of ribozyme in 1987 by T. Cech in Tetrahymena.
Correct : A. If A and R both are true and R is correct explanation of A